Q: In reading some comments by the Apostle Paul in the book of Romans, it appears that Paul might not have understood that most Israelites who are not called to salvation in this day and age will be called in the Second Resurrection and will then be given their opportunity to inherit eternal life. Is this impression of Paul's lack of understanding correct?

It is not. Paul clearly understood and taught that there is a Second Resurrection for all those who were never called to salvation in this life. This will include the multitude of the past and present houses of Israel and Judah, as well as the multitude of non-Israelite nations--the "Gentiles." Paul knew that today, only very few --the "firstfruits" (compare Romans 8:23)--will be called to salvation and the pre-millennial First Resurrection to eternal life. Paul knew that the Second Resurrection will not be to eternal life, but to a physical temporary existence, but with the potential to qualify for eternal life.

Q: Would you please explain what Paul meant in 1 Corinthians 5:5, saying that a sinner in the Church should be delivered to Satan for the destruction of the flesh?

Although the correct answer can be easily ascertained from the Scriptures, many commentaries are actually confused regarding the meaning of this passage. Paul said, in context, in 1 Corinthians 5:1-5:

Q: What was the exact hour of Christ's crucifixion (compare Mark 15:33-37)?

At first glance, it might appear that the accounts of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John gave inconsistent times pertaining to Christ's crucifixion. However, this is not the case. Apparent inconsistencies are explained when we realize that Matthew, Mark and Luke used the Jewish reckoning of time, while John gave the Roman reckoning.

(1) According to the JEWISH reckoning, a day of 24 hours duration begins at sunset and ends at sunset, and the (approximate) twelve hours of the daylight portion BEGIN WITH SUNRISE, while the (approximate) twelve hours of the night portion BEGIN WITH SUNSET.

Q: Please explain what Jesus meant in His statement found in Luke 16:16—especially, regarding the Kingdom of God, when He said, “‘…and everyone is pressing into it.’”

In the context of this verse, the account shows that Jesus was reacting to the rejection of His teaching by the Pharisees (compare verse 14). In Luke 16:13, Jesus concluded a parable with this admonition, “‘…You cannot serve God and mammon’”—a statement that challenged the Pharisaical practices!

Continuing in Luke 16:15-16:

“And He said to them, ‘You are those who justify yourselves before men, but God knows your hearts. For what is highly esteemed among men is an abomination in the sight of God.

“‘The law and the prophets were until John. Since that time the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is pressing into it.’”

Q: What is meant in John 1:14 that Jesus was "full of grace?"

John 1:14 says that ".. the Word [the "Logos," that is, Jesus Christ the Spokesman] became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory... full of grace and truth."

The Greek word "charis," which is commonly translated as "grace," has a variety of meanings. It can and very often does refer to God's forgiveness of our sins--His "unmerited pardon"--and to our justification. We read in Romans 3:24 that we are "being justified freely by His grace" (compare also Titus 3:7).

Q: I was reading in Matthew tonight and came across Matthew 11:12: "‘And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffers violence, and the violent take it by force.’" Can you shed any light on what this means?

As a beginning point in answering your question, first consider these comments from the NASB Study Bible regarding “suffers violence,” as translated in Matthew 11:12: "The Greek here is taken in a passive sense. In this context its passive meaning is, ‘suffers violent attacks.’ The verse emphasizes the ongoing persecution of the people of the kingdom.”

The statement by Jesus in Matthew 11:12 reflects the violence of persecution against representatives of the Kingdom of God. Specifically, those in the forefront of proclaiming the future establishment of God’s Kingdom on the earth are targets of mortal violence.

Q: What is your position regarding the Pledge of Allegiance to the U.S. Flag?

Our answer addresses strictly the situation in the USA. In regard to other countries, any pledge or its wording would have to be examined on an individual basis, although the principles expressed herein would most certainly apply.

The short answer whether or not it is permissible for a Christian to pledge allegiance to the U.S. flag is that the Church of the Eternal God does not feel that it is biblically problematic for a Christian or his children to do so. However, if someone has conscientious problems in that regard, he must of course follow his convictions (compare Romans 14:23).

Q: Could you explain the concept of "laying on of hands"?

The ceremony of "laying on of hands" is mentioned as one of the basic doctrines of God's Church (Hebrews 6:2). However, when reading quite a few commentaries, the very existence of that doctrine is commonly denied--nor is there any understanding as to what this doctrine contains.

Q: When Christ returns to set up the Kingdom of God, will He return visibly and bodily?

This seems to be a relatively simple matter to determine from the Bible, but there are myriads of different ideas that exist about this question. Let us look at some basic Scriptures.

In Matthew 24:26-30, Jesus Himself said:

Q: Who were the magi or wise men in Matthew 2? How many were there?

 Surprisingly to many, the "magi" were neither "astrologers," nor did they visit Joseph, Mary and the Christ Child in the inn, nor is it biblically revealed how many there were. However, there are traditions which would support the idea that they were twelve, not three, as commonly assumed.