If Satan cannot heal, how do you explain "miraculous healings," which apparently do not originate with God?

In our last Q&A, we explained that God did not give Satan or his demons the power to heal human beings. In this Q&A, we want to explain “miraculous healings,” “caused” by Satan, which, upon further scrutiny, prove to be not true healings at all.

In our free booklet, “Angels, Demons and the Spirit World,” we wrote the following in Part 2, “The World of Demons,” on pages 42-44, 51:

“We must not underestimate the power and influence of Satan and his demons. The Bible tells us that Satan ‘deceives the whole world’ (Revelation 12:9). His biggest deception, no doubt, is to convince unsuspecting man that he does not even exist. He deceives others by pretending that he is an ‘angel of light’ (2 Corinthians 11:14). Many preach as ‘his ministers,’ transforming themselves ‘into ministers of righteousness’ (verse 15).

“John later said that ‘many deceivers have gone out into the world’ (2 John 7), and he warned us in 1 John 4:1 to ‘…test the spirits, whether they are of God; because many false prophets have gone out into the world.’ Christ prophesied for the end time that ‘…false christs and false prophets will rise and show great signs and wonders to deceive, if possible, even the elect’ (Matthew 24:24).

“Satan and his demons can show great signs and wonders. It is prophesied that Satan will ultimately give his power to a religious leader who will work ‘signs… by which he deceived’ the people (Revelation 19:20). False religious teachers, inspired by demons, might even be able to accurately foretell the future (Deuteronomy 13:1–4; Acts 16:16–19).

“Satan has the power to inspire people to go to war (Job 1:9–15; Revelation 16:13–14; Revelation 20:7–10). He has the power to throw down fire to consume man and beast (In Job 1:16, people felt that God brought this fire, but the context shows that Satan was the power behind it). As the ‘prince of the power of the air’ (Ephesians 2:2), he can bring destruction through mighty winds…

“There are many Scriptures that prove that Satan or demons can possess animals and people, forcing them to do terrible things (Luke 22:3; John 13:27). Demon-possessed people can be extremely violent (Matthew 8:28) and self-destructive (Mark 5:2–5). They lose all sense of decency (Luke 8:27).

“The Bible also shows that demons can possess or influence people to make them spiritually, psychologically, and physically sick. Even Paul was sick because ‘a thorn in the flesh was given to me, a messenger of Satan to buffet me’ (2 Corinthians 12:7). Through the influence of demons, people can be mute, deaf and dumb (Mark 9:17, 25), epileptic (Matthew 17:15–18), and infirm (Luke 13:11, 16). When a demon leaves such a person, it may appear as if the person has been healed from a physical sickness…

“Sorcery, witchcraft, hypnosis, and certain meditation practices are further methods of Satan to overpower the mind of a human being and to make him or her into a helpless victim…

“In Job 2:1–7, we are told that Satan obtained permission from God to bring terrible sickness upon Job, but he was not allowed to kill him. Again, we see that Satan must act within the limits given to him by God.”

Based on these comments, we should be able to see that even though Satan does not have the power to heal, it might appear that sick people are “healed” when Satan removes sicknesses from them with which he had inflicted them in the first place. But this has nothing to do with true godly healing.

It is also explained in Scripture that such Satanic or demonic withdrawal (leading to the perception of “healing”) might be very temporary. When Jesus Christ cast out demons, He would give the command to that demon not to return into the human being, and the healing of the sickness, initially caused by Satan or that demon, would be permanent. Compare, for example, Mark 9:25:

“… Jesus… rebuked the unclean spirit, saying to it, ‘Deaf and dumb spirit, I command you, come out of him and enter him no more!'”

On the other hand, when a demon voluntarily departs or goes out of a person, he may return together “with other spirits more wicked than himself, and they enter and dwell there; and the last state of that man is WORSE than the first” (Matthew 12:43-45; compare Luke 11:24-26). These kinds of “voluntary departures” are not permanent “exorcisms,” nor do they constitute physical healing.

In addition, Satan or his demons could make someone physically or mentally sick, without actually possessing a person. In the case of King Saul, the demon would plague him at times, coming and leaving, but while the wicked spirit severely influenced him, King Saul acted irrationally and with extreme violence.

Satan wants to deceive people, and he is a liar and the father of lies, as well as the destroyer. He does not really have the welfare of people in mind. He would not truly heal people, even if he HAD the power to do so, except for the purpose of deception. Since he does not have the power to heal, he deceives mankind by pretending that he heals people. He and his demons will “cooperate” with religious preachers, giving the appearance that these false ministers have power to heal, by voluntarily withdrawing from sick people whom they had made sick in the first place.

As we read above, Satan is pretending to be an angel of light, and “his ministers” are transforming themselves into ministers of righteousness. Satan gives power to his servants and ministers to show great signs and wonders to deceive. They will be working LYING wonders, including apparent healings and exorcisms. It may appear as if God had used those ministers to heal a person or cast out a demon, but in reality, these “signs and wonders” by satanic ministers are LIES.

We read in Luke 13:11-16, that Satan, through a “spirit of infirmity,” had inflicted a woman for eighteen years with a sickness, causing her to bend over and being unable to raise herself up. But since Satan and his demons are inferior to God, Jesus cured the woman by casting out the demon, and that spiritual and physical healing was permanent.

On the other hand, demons may not always cooperate with those who pretend to work miracles by using the name of Christ, without having obtained godly authority to do so. This is especially true for those unordained persons who claim to be followers of Christ and think they can cast out demons. You might want to read what happened to some who tried to do this, as described in Acts 19:13-16.

We also need to state that some people may think they were healed while they were not, and others, claiming, testifying and “witnessing” their healing, are just simply frauds, being in conspiracy with fraudulent “faith healers,” whose goal it is to draw a paying following after themselves.

It is true, of course, that the mind of a person can have such a powerful influence on the body that a person may in fact experience physical improvement. God has put in motion automatic laws, pertaining to sickness and healing. The body can regenerate itself to an extent. When we cut ourselves with a knife, the wound will heal after a while. The same is true for psychosomatic symptoms, which might cause physical problems. Envy and jealousy can make us sick, quite literally. Once these wrong feelings are being dealt with, a revival of the body may be the automatic consequence.

But these are laws that are set in motion by God–they have nothing to do with the working of Satan or his demons. If, however, a person who is experiencing a natural improvement attributes the same to some kind of a healing power caused by “miracle-working holy water” or actions by a minister who is in reality a minister of Satan, then that person has inadvertently fallen into the trap of Satan’s deceptions.

We do take note of the fact that God has intervened to heal people in different ways and in different circumstances. For instance, He healed Naaman who followed the instructions of Elisha and dipped himself seven times in the Jordan (compare 2 Kings 5). In John 5 we read about the Pool of Bethesda that existed in Jerusalem and that was used by God in similar fashion to point to Himself as the true Healer (Psalm 103:3). In fact, Jesus came to this location and healed a man who had been infirm for thirty-eight years, showing that the Father had given to Him the power to heal–something He did for many sick people during His ministry, and the very thing that He commissions and empowers His true ministers to continue (Please see our free booklet, “Sickness and Healing–What the Bible Tells Us”).

We don’t want to deny the fact that God, in His mercy, might heal sick people who pray to Him, even though they do not really know Him. Or, true servants of God may pray for someone who is sick, and although the sick person might not know God, God might hear the prayers of His servants and heal the sick person. But in any case, such healing would be of God, not of Satan. Sadly, in far too many cases, people who were healed by God don’t give God the glory, but attribute their healing to false gods, “saints in heaven,” the “Virgin Mary,” far-Eastern powers or other such sources.

In addition, it appears likely that Satan or his demons may give the ability to some persons not to feel pain (we might think of certain gurus who walk on fire with their bare feet or who pierce themselves with spears or cut themselves with knives), or who, through the influence of satanic forces, appear to be able to make others sick by pronouncing a curse on them (we might think of the horrible practice of Voodoo sorcery and witchcraft, etc.).

Again, when these demonically inspired or possessed sorcerers “lift their curse,” the sick person may recover due to the fact that the demonic influence, which caused the “curse” of sickness, might cease, at least for a while. It should be clearly seen, however, that none of these evil practices have anything to do with the workings of the Holy God of the Bible.

We are to test the spirits whether they are of God. “Healing waters” are not of God, and neither are false ministers (pretending to be servants of God). Even though they might offer to pray for the sick (sometimes right over television) or they misappropriate the biblical concept of an anointed cloth and offer to send a “healing cloth,” they are in truth ministers of Satan, and any ensuing “healings” are neither genuine, nor are they of godly origin.

The Bible tells us how we can distinguish a servant of God and a servant of Satan. For one, he must understand and teach the truth about who and what God was, is and will be; as well as who and what Jesus Christ was and what He did; what He is doing today; and what He will do in the future (John 1:1-2, 5, 14; Hebrews 1:1-4; 1 John 2:22-23; 4:2-3, 14-15; 5:6; 2 John 7; Hebrews 2:17-18; 4:14; 2 Peter 3:1-12). In addition, he must understand and teach the righteous law of God (Isaiah 8:16, 20; 1 John 2:4; 3:10). Otherwise, there is no light and godly power in such a person, and whatever he or she may do in regard to “healing” is tantamount to ungodly deception.

Christ warned, however, that some of the lying miracles and signs shown by the human instruments of Satan, claiming to be godly “teachers,” “preachers,” “ministers,” “priests,” “faith healers,” “evangelists,” “prophets” or “apostles,” will appear so real that even God’s very elect could be deceived, if it were possible. We must be careful not to fall for such deception, and reject any and all kinds of fellowship with Satan and his evil works of darkness (2 John 9-11; Ephesians 5:8, 11; 2 Corinthians 6:14, 17).

Lead Writer: Norbert Link

Did the Father really forsake Christ?

When Jesus was dying a terrible death on the cross, He cried out, just before He died, “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?” (Matthew 27:46). Did He really mean it? Did the Father forsake Him at that moment? If so, why? And if not, why would Jesus have uttered those words?

Some, not understanding the significance and deep meaning of Christ’s words, say that He just shouted out these words to fulfill a prophecy from Psalm 22:1. They contend that Jesus repeated the words written down by David in the Old Testament, just to show that He was the Messiah.

Even though Jesus had inspired David to pen down these words, which WERE pointing at the time of His crucifixion, this does not mean that they are not to be understood quite literally, and that the Father did not in fact forsake Jesus at that moment. If He did not, then both the prophecy written down in the book of Psalms, referring to Christ, and Christ’s words, while hanging on the cross, would constitute a lie. If the Father did not forsake Christ at that moment, then Christ was saying something which did not occur–and no “interpretation” to the contrary could do away with the fact that Jesus would have lied at that moment.

This, of course, is impossible, as Jesus never lied, since He never sinned (1 Peter 2:22; Hebrews 4:15), and lying is sinning (Colossians 3:9; 1 John 1:6; 2:21; Revelation 21:27; 22:15).

Having clearly ruled out the possibility that the Father did NOT forsake Christ on the cross, let us now explain WHY and in what way the Father HAD to forsake Jesus.

This is what we wrote in the last Q&A:

“It is true that for a brief moment the Father forsook Christ on the cross (Matthew 27:46). This happened just before Christ died (see verse 50), because at that time, He was carrying, symbolically, the sins of all of mankind (compare John 1:29), and the Father, being of purer eyes than to behold iniquity (Habakkuk 1:13), turned His eyes from Christ, as unrepented sin separates us from God (Isaiah 59:1-2)…”

Again, we ask, how and why, exactly, did the Father forsake Christ? God–both the divine Father and the divine Son–cannot look on iniquity. This is not to say that they are not aware of the sins of the world–they most certainly are–but it means that sin separates us from God and that God will turn away from us if He sees unrepented sin in our lives–sins which we are unwilling to repent of.

Notice what we read in Deuteronomy 23:9-14:

“When the army goes out against your enemies [as true Christians, we are today engaged in a constant spiritual battle with Satan the devil, as well as the world and our own selfish and carnal desires], then keep yourself from every wicked thing… you shall have a place outside the camp, where you may go out; and you shall have an implement among your equipment, and when you sit down outside, you shall dig with it and turn and cover your refuse. For the LORD your God WALKS IN THE MIDST OF YOUR CAMP [today, both the Father and the Son live IN us through the Holy Spirit, compare John 14:23], to deliver you and give your enemies over to you; therefore your camp shall be holy, that He may SEE NO UNCLEAN THING AMONG YOU, AND TURN AWAY FROM YOU.”

Interestingly, we understand that it was Jesus Christ, as a divine being in the God Family, who spoke these words, but He spoke them in obedience to the Father’s Will (compare John 14:24). As divine God beings, both the Father and the Son are of purer eyes than to behold iniquity–that is why the world is cut off from God, and why only those who repent of their sins can come to God. Of course, this is not to say that God is not aware of our sins, but His eyes can’t stand them. Even in the flesh, the human being Jesus Christ–who was fully man (John 1:14)–cautioned everyone to forsake sin–to sin no more–to repent to avoid perishment. When Peter sinned against Christ, adopting Satan’s thoughts, Christ told Him, “Get behind me, Satan.” When Peter denied Him, Jesus looked at him–not at his sin, but at him–to lead him to repentance. And Peter did repent.

At the time of Jesus’ death, He carried on His shoulders the load of the sins of the world. Think about it! He carried all the terrible crimes, abominations and perversions which the world committed since creation–including the very sins which caused God to bring the flood on this earth and to destroy Sodom and Gomorrah, as well as sins which were so terrible that God said He never considered the possibility that man would commit those (compare Jeremiah 19:4-5; 32:35).

Jesus took all of these sins for which man is responsible and placed them willingly on His shoulders. The Bible says that when He did this, He BECAME sin and a CURSE for us.

Notice what we wrote in our free booklet, “Jesus Christ–A Great Mystery“:

“In order to come to the point of DYING for our SINS—to be a perfect sacrifice that the Father would accept—Christ had to fulfill certain requirements, as follows:

“1. He had to become a human being. Galatians 4:4–5 explains that He had to be born of a woman; that is, He had to become flesh and blood, a human being. Spirit beings do not and cannot die.

“2. He had to become sin for us, as 2 Corinthians 5: 21 explains. This does not mean that He sinned while He was human. But it does mean that He BECAME sin, that He personified sin in the Father’s eyes, so that His shed blood could COVER sin and wipe it away. He—the Lamb of God—placed our sins on Himself, and He, in that sense, BECAME THOSE SINS. In God’s eyes, when Christ was killed, all those sins were eradicated with Him.

“3. He had to become a curse for us, as Galatians 3:13 points out. He became a curse for us when He was crucified. In becoming a curse for us, He freed us from the curse that we were under. When we violated God’s law and sinned, the curse of the law—the death penalty—was upon us. Notice that when we sin, we are placed under the curse of the law. Galatians 3:10 tells us: ‘Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.’ James 2:10 adds: ‘For whoever shall keep the whole law, and yet stumble in one point, he is guilty of all.’ When we break one of God’s commandments, we are guilty of transgressing God’s law, and the curse of God’s law—the death penalty for sin—is upon us. If this curse were not removed, we would die the second death—eternal death. Notice this in the sobering example given by Christ in Matthew 25:41–46 where Christ is referring to people who have sinned, because when they had the ability to help others in need, they actually held back and refused to extend the needed help. They apparently sinned willfully and maliciously, so that their penalty—their curse—was eternal death in gehenna fire. But Christ became that curse for us so that the curse CAN be removed from us, IF, and WHEN we repent and claim His perfect sacrifice.

“4. He had to come in the form of sinful flesh, as Romans 8:3 explains: ‘For what the law could not do in that it was weak through the flesh [humans were too weak to keep it], God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, on account of sin: He condemned sin in the flesh.’ Christ was a human being, like you and I. He was exposed to the same human temptations that confront us. He had the same human nature that we have. He was in the form of sinful flesh. He did not sin, but His sinful flesh tempted Him many times to sin. However, Christ overcame His sinful desires, and by doing so, He ‘condemned sin in His flesh,’ that is, He showed that man, with the help of God’s Spirit within him, can overcome sin. He came, as a human being, ‘on account of sin.’ He had to, and did, overcome sin IN THE FLESH.

“5. Christ had to experience being separated from God the Father. Matthew 27:45–46 records that just prior to Christ’s death, while hanging on the cross, He asked the Father: ‘My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?’ Yes, indeed, WHY?

“WHY did God forsake Him? Before we answer that, we need to understand what sin does to us. Isaiah 59:1–2 explains that our sins, unrepented of, separate us from God. God will not hear our prayers if we live in sin. It can be compared with a wall between God and us.

“Habakkuk 1:13 adds that God cannot look on, or accept, wickedness. Good and evil are not compatible, and God, who is good, cannot and will not accept evil. So, God does not regard the prayers of an unrepentant sinner. Deuteronomy 23:12–14 explains the principle that God does not want to see something unclean in a person. If the uncleanness is not taken care of, He will turn away from us and forsake us. Finally, Psalm 5:5 points out that God will not allow a boastful evil person to stand before Him. God will not hear somebody who is proud about his or her sins and who is not willing to repent of them.

“But why did God forsake Christ who never sinned, who was never boastful or unclean or wicked or evil?

“We know already that Christ had become sin for us, that the curse of the law for our sins was upon Him when He was crucified. We also read that at the time of His crucifixion, just prior to His death, something remarkable happened. We are told that it became DARK over all the land from the sixth to the ninth hour. What is the significance of this period of darkness?

“Darkness symbolizes sin, as many Scriptures reveal (Compare Romans 13:12; Ephesians 5:8–14). When Christ had all the sins of mankind placed upon Him, thereby having ‘become’ sin, in that sense, He had to experience separation from God, the Father! God, the Father saw all of the sins of man placed on His Son and He could not look at them. His eyes were ‘purer than to behold’ those sins. Remember, those sins included mass murders, rapes, terrible wars, tortures, sorceries, demonic idolatries, holocausts, martyrdom of the saints—all of the wicked, evil, rotten, despicable and deplorable abominations man has done, and continues to do—and all of these were placed on Christ!

“Christ was WILLING to offer Himself as this sacrifice for us. And the Father was WILLING to have His Son go through this ordeal, knowing that He would have to withdraw from Him at the time of Christ’s death.

“And what a sacrifice it was! Christ, who had been forsaken by everybody, had always found comfort in the fact that God, the Father, would never forsake Him (compare John 16:32). But at that moment in time, God, the Father, would HAVE TO FORSAKE HIM, not because of anything that Christ had done, but because of what WE had done and would still do.”

The fact that the Father quite literally forsook Jesus Christ has been consistently taught by the Church of God, under its late human leader, Herbert W. Armstrong (who died in 1986). This fact has also been overwhelmingly accepted by biblical commentaries.

The Ryrie Study Bible writes:

“This cry may reflect the desertion Jesus felt as He was bearing the sins of the world (2 Cor. 5:21).”

The Nelson Study Bible adds:

“The duplication of ‘My God, My God’ indicates Jesus’ deep sorrow. The fact that Jesus spoke in Aramaic, the tongue of His birth, may be another sign of the extreme stress He was encountering…”

Dummelow, A Commentary on the Holy Bible, states:

“Upon the cross Jesus was making atonement for the sins of the world, ‘bearing our sins in [His] own body on the tree,’ for upon Him was laid ‘the iniquity of us all.’ He was so closely identified with the race which He came to save, that He felt the burden of its sin, and cried as the Representative of Humanity… The Lord was forsaken, that we might not be forsaken; He was forsaken that we might be delivered from our sins and from eternal death…”

J.H. Blunt, The Annotated Bible, offers the following additional thoughts:

“The cry reveals to us the depth and intensity of Christ’s sufferings [on the cross]… At that time fell upon our Blessed Savior the full burden of the sin which He had come to bear that He might save man from its consequences. [He] was made an offering for sin… [He was made] sin for us Who knew no sin… [He was] being made a curse for us… Who.. bare our sins in His own body on the tree… At that time the chastisement of our peace was upon Him… so that He felt the Divine anger towards sinners… [He] was for a [short] time banished from the Presence of God, as bearing the punishment of sin… At last the anguish of those hours of darkness concentrated itself into the words which, like these, had been spoken prophetically in His name by David… and in which our Lord spoke as the Representative of all sinners, ‘The rebukes of them that rebuke Thee have fallen upon Me’ [Psalm 69:9].”

Note the following remarks by Matthew Henry’s Commentary on the Whole Bible:

“… our Lord Jesus was, in his sufferings, for a time, forsaken by his Father. So he saith himself, who we are sure was under no mistake concerning his own case…Christ was made Sin for us, a Curse for us… Christ’s being forsaken of his Father was the most grievous of his sufferings, and that which he complained most of… when his Father stood at a distance, he cried out thus.”

John Gill’s Exposition of the Entire Bible adds:

“He calls him his God, not as he was God, but as he was man… When he is said to be ‘forsaken’ of God… he made not this expostulation out of ignorance: he knew the reason of it, and that it was not out of personal disrespect to him, or for any sin of his own; or because he was not a righteous, but a wicked man… but because he stood in the legal place, and stead of sinners… the heinousness of sin may be learnt from hence, which not only… separates, with respect to communion, between God and his children; but even caused him to hide his face from his own Son, whilst he was bearing, and suffering for, the sins of his people…”

Albert Barnes’ Note on the Bible states:

“This expression is one denoting intense suffering. It has been difficult to understand in what sense Jesus was ‘forsaken by God.’ It is certain that God approved his work. It is certain that he was innocent. He had done nothing to forfeit the favor of God. As his own Son – holy, harmless, undefiled, and obedient – God still loved him. In either of these senses God could not have forsaken him…

“Isaiah tells us… that ‘he bore our griefs and carried our sorrows; that he was wounded for our transgressions, and bruised for our iniquities; that the chastisement of our peace was laid upon him; that by his stripes we are healed.’ He hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us… he was made a sin-offering… he died in our place, on our account, that he might bring us near to God. It was this, doubtless, which caused his intense sufferings. It was the manifestation of God’s hatred of sin… that he experienced in that dread hour. It was suffering endured by Him that was due to us, and suffering by which, and by which alone, we can be saved from eternal death.”

To deny the fact that Jesus Christ HAD TO BE forsaken–and that He WAS forsaken by God the Father for a very short time, is tantamount to failing to appreciate the seriousness and magnitude of the Sacrifice of the Father and the Son. It is tantamount to not appreciating what the Father did [forsaking His own Son] and what the Son endured [being forsaken for a short time by His Father]. They did it for us, so that we could have forgiveness of sin. Denying this fact is tantamount to limiting and belittling the Father’s and Christ’s Sacrifice and to perhaps become slack in motivation to overcome sin. It is a dangerous thought pattern that must be repented of immediately.

Lead Writer: Norbert Link

Does God suffer because of man?

Even though this might be difficult for us to understand, God does indeed suffer and experience mental pain when He sees that we suffer. Every loving father or brother would feel mental anguish when he observes that his children or brethren suffer innocently or because they go the wrong way and inflict pain upon themselves as a consequence. Even more so, God the Father and Jesus Christ the Son–the firstborn among many brethren–suffer when they see that we experience pain and anguish and despair.

As we will see, God the Father suffered when Jesus Christ had to endure torture and an excruciating death on the cross. We must never forget that God the Father GAVE His Son to die for us. Both the Father and the Son gave the supreme Sacrifice for the sins of man, so that the world would not have to perish, but could inherit eternal life (John 3:16).

We all know that Jesus Christ is our Savior. Many biblical passages prove this fact. He suffered in the flesh and died for us so that we can have everlasting life (compare Luke 2:11; John 4:42; Acts 5:31; 13:23; Philippians 3:20; 2 Timothy 1:10; Titus 1:4; 2:13; 2 Peter 1:11; 1 John 4:14).

But God the Father is ALSO called our Savior (1 Timothy 1:1; 2:3-6; Titus 3:4-6; Jude 24-25). This is the case because by giving His Son to die for the world, God the Father made salvation possible for mankind. 2 Corinthians 5:19 tells us that the Father was “in” Christ–and so, He experienced mental suffering when His Son suffered. Notice what we wrote in our Q&A on Zechariah 12:10 (which passage states that people “will look on Me whom they have pierced; they will mourn for Him as one mourns for his only son, and grieve for Him as one grieves for a firstborn…”):

“… the Father suffered when Christ suffered. Even though Jesus Christ was pierced, it was God the Father who GAVE His only begotten Son to DIE for the world (John 3:16). We read that the Father was IN the Son (2 Corinthians 5:19). He experienced the Son’s suffering as well. When the Son was pierced, the Father was pierced too in that sense–God the Father who loved the Son felt the pain and suffering of His Son; He suffered WITH Christ; He felt the piercing as Christ did. Today, in the same way, both the Father and the Son feel also our pain and suffering when we go through severe trials (compare 2 Corinthians 1:5).”

It is true that for a brief moment the Father forsook Christ on the cross (Matthew 27:46). This happened just before Christ died (see verse 50), because at that time, He was carrying, symbolically, the sins of all of mankind (compare John 1:29), and the Father, being of purer eyes than to behold iniquity (Habakkuk 1:13), turned His eyes from Christ, as unrepented sin separates us from God (Isaiah 59:1-2). But as mentioned, this only lasted for a short moment. Apart from this, the Father was with Christ and in Christ throughout His human life (John 16:32), including during His trial, torture and the hours of His crucifixion. As Jesus suffered in the flesh, the Father suffered with Him in the Spirit.

Christ had not committed any sin. He was not punished for any sin of His own. As His loving Father, God suffered with Him, experiencing the pain when His innocent Son was rejected by man, and when He was brutally beaten and murdered, to give His life for the sins of the world.

God the Father and Jesus Christ suffer with us today, when we are suffering innocently. As the Father lived in Christ, so the Father and Christ live today in us through the Holy Spirit (John 17:20-21). God never feels indifferent about our suffering. We read that the death of His saints is precious in His sight (Psalm 116:15).

The Old Testament confirms the fact that God grieves when His children suffer. This is the case when they suffer innocently–for righteousness’ sake–or when they suffer because of their sins.

Notice Judges 10:15-16 (Authorized Version):

“And the children of Israel said unto the LORD, We have sinned: do thou unto us whatsoever seemeth good unto thee; deliver us only, we pray thee, this day. And they put away the strange gods from among them, and served the LORD: and his soul was GRIEVED for the misery of Israel.”

Note, too, this remarkable statement in Isaiah 63:7-9:

“I will mention the lovingkindness of the LORD And the praise of the LORD, According to all that the LORD has bestowed on us, And the great goodness toward the house of Israel, Which He has bestowed on them according to His mercies, According to the multitude of His lovingkindnesses. For He said, ‘Surely they are My people, Children who will not lie.’ So He became their Savior. In all their affliction HE WAS AFFLICTED, and the Angel of His Presence saved them; In His love and in His pity He redeemed them; And He bore them and carried them All the days of old.”

Sadly, ancient Israel did not repay God in kind. Rather, we read in verse 10: “But they rebelled and GRIEVED His Holy Spirit; So He turned Himself against them as an enemy, And He fought against them.”

In Isaiah 65:2-3, we read more about the fact that God suffers or is hurt when we sin. He says: “I have stretched out My hands all day long to a rebellious people, Who walk in a way that is not good, According to their own thoughts; A people who provoke Me to anger continually to the face…” Luther renders the phrase, “who provoke Me to anger” as, “who HURT me.” Menge says: “who continuously provoke me in a HURTFUL way.”

God suffers spiritually and mentally when He sees us turning from His commandments and going the wrong way, knowing that this will cause us pain and misery. We read that God chastens every son whom He accepts and receives (Hebrews 12:5-6). He wants us to learn not to sin, but to live righteously. Jesus reiterates too that He rebukes and chastens us because He loves us (Revelation 3:19).

When people do not respond to God’s love and correction, He is grieved. We read in Psalm 95:10: “For forty years I was GRIEVED with that generation, And I said, ‘It is a people who go astray in their hearts, And they do not know My ways.’ So I swore in My wrath, ‘They shall not enter My rest.'” Compare, too, Psalm 78:40.

Continued disobedience and rebellion caused God to repent or regret or feel “sorry” that He had made man, being “grieved in His heart” (Genesis 6:6). Even then, we should always remember God’s great love and mercy for man (compare Exodus 34:6-7; Numbers 14:18; Psalm 86:5, 15; Romans 9:22).

As God suffers when He sees man–His creation–sinning, so we, in whom God’s Spirit dwells, must have the same compassionate and grieving attitude towards others who go the wrong way, because they have not yet realized that in doing so, they are bringing misery upon themselves (compare Jeremiah 8:21). We read in Amos 6:6 that God is angry with those who “drink wine from bowls, And anoint [themselves] with the best ointments, But are not grieved for the affliction of Joseph.” Compare, too, Ezekiel 9:3-4.

And so, we must never cease, but we are rather to increase in our efforts to preach the gospel of the kingdom of God in all the world as a witness, knowing that this is a necessary requirement for Jesus Christ to return (Matthew 24:14; Mark 13:10) and to set up the kingdom of God here on earth, when there will be no more misery and pain.

Lead Writer: Norbert Link

Was the harlot Rahab, mentioned in the book of Joshua, the same person who is mentioned in Matthew 1:5, as being an ancestor of Jesus Christ?

The answer is yes. She was that very same person. And this is significant, as we will see.

To begin with, we should mention that Christ’s genealogy, as set forth in Matthew 1:1-17, is different, to an extent, from the genealogy as set forth in Luke 3:23-38. The reason is that the genealogy in Matthew “is traced through Joseph, Jesus’ legal (though not natural) father, and it establishes His claim and right to the throne of David (1:6). The genealogy in Luke 3:23-38 is evidently that of Mary…” (compare Ryrie Study Bible).

There can be no doubt that the woman Rahab, who is described in the book of Joshua as protecting and rescuing the Israelite spies in the city of Jericho, was a harlot (see our Q&A on this topic).

In that above-mentioned Q&A, we are also saying that “Rahab later married Salmon and brought forth Boaz. Boaz married Ruth and brought forth Obed. Obed, in turn, brought forth Jesse, the father of David (compare Matthew 1:5-6). David became the forefather of Joseph, the husband of Mary, and of Mary herself… “

We also said:

“The only women specifically mentioned by name in the genealogy of Jesus, as recorded in Matthew 1, besides Rahab, are Mary, the wife of Joseph (verse 16), who was a righteous woman; Tamar, the daughter in law of Judah (verse 3), who played the HARLOT with him since he had broken his promise to give her one of his sons in marriage (compare Genesis 38:1-30); and Ruth, a non-Israelite from the tribe of Moab (verse 5). One more woman is mentioned, without naming her directly, in verse 6, where we read: ‘David the king begot Solomon by her [who had been the wife] of Uriah.’ This refers to Bathsheba, the wife of Uriah, whom David had killed, after Bathsheba became pregnant as a result of David’s adulterous affair with her.

“All of these women are listed in the genealogy of Jesus, the stepson and foster child of Joseph. They are listed because they deserved to be listed–not because of their weaknesses and sins, but because of their subsequent repentance and faith. Rahab is no exception. She clearly was a harlot and she was known as such, but she acted upon faith, repented and changed her lifestyle, and she is today memorialized in God’s Word as one of the ancestors of Jesus’ stepfather Joseph. In addition, she was an ancestor of Mary, the mother of Jesus–which means that Jesus Christ was a direct descendant of Rahab! (Compare Luke 3:32 with Matthew 1:5, showing that Boaz, an ancestor of King David, was the son of Salmon and Rahab). Most importantly, however, is the fact that she will be in the first resurrection (Hebrews 11:31, 39-40).”

This conclusion is, as far as we can see, supported overwhelmingly by the most respected commentaries.

The New Bible Commentary:Revised states regarding Matthew 1:5: “Rahab had been a harlot and was a foreigner (Jos. 2).”

The Nelson Study Bible agrees, saying that Rahab, mentioned in Matthew 1:5, was “the Canaanite harlot of Jericho (Josh. 2).”

The commentary by Dummelow states: “Contrary to Jewish custom… Matthew introduces into his genealogy four women, Tamar, Rahab, Ruth, and Bathsheba. Of these, two (Rahab and Ruth) were Gentiles, and three were guilty of gross sins… Jewish Christians instead of regarding Gentile converts with contempt, should be proud of them, as their ancestors were of Rahab and Ruth, who, on becoming proselytes, were accounted mothers in Israel…”

The Life Application Bible writes to Christ’s genealogy in Matthew 1: “Some were heroes of faith–like Abraham, Isaac, Ruth, and David. Some had shady reputations–like Rahab and Tamar. Many were very ordinary–like Hezron, Ram, Nahshon, and Akim. And others were evil–like Manasseh and Abijah. God’s work in history is not limited by human failures or sins, and he works through ordinary people…”

The Jamieson Fausset and Brown commentary states:

“Four women are here introduced; two of them Gentiles by birth – Rachab and Ruth; and three of them with a blot at their names in the Old Testament – Thamar, Rachab, and Bath-sheba. This feature in the present genealogy – herein differing from that given by Luke – comes well from him who styles himself in his list of the Twelve, what none of the other lists do, ‘Matthew the publican’; as if thereby to hold forth, at the very outset, the unsearchable riches of that grace which could not only fetch in ‘them that are afar off,’ but teach down even to ‘publicans and harlots,’ and raise them to ‘sit with the princes of his people.’… It will be observed that Rachab is here represented as the great-grandmother of David (see Ruth 4:20-22; 1 Chronicles 2:11-15) – a thing not beyond possibility indeed…”

Matthew Henry’s Commentary on the Whole Bible adds:

“There are four women, and but four, named in this genealogy; two of them were originally strangers to the commonwealth of Israel, Rachab a Canaanitess, and a harlot besides, and Ruth the Moabitess; for in Jesus Christ there is neither Greek, nor Jew; those that are strangers and foreigners are welcome, in Christ, to the citizenship of the saints. The other two were adulteresses, Tamar and Bathsheba…”

The Treasury of Scriptural Knowledge supports the conclusion as well that the harlot Rahab was indeed the same person as the one listed in Matthew 1.

John Gill’s Exposition of the Entire Bible reads:

“That Salmon begat Boaz, is affirmed in [Ruth 4:21] but it is not there said, nor any where else in the Old Testament, as here, that he begat him of Rahab, that is, of Rahab the harlot. This the Evangelist had from tradition, or from the Jewish records. That the Messiah was to spring from Boaz is asserted by the Jewish writers… and they also own that Rahab was married to a prince in Israel, which some say… was Joshua: they pretend that she was ten years of age when the Israelites came out of Egypt; that she played the harlot all the forty years they were in the wilderness, and was married to Joshua upon the destruction of Jericho.

“To excuse this marriage with a Canaanitish woman, they tell us, she was not of the seven nations with whom marriage was forbid; and moreover, that she became a proselyte when the spies were received by her: they own that some very great persons of their nation sprung from her, as Jeremiah, Maaseiah, Hanameel, Shallum, Baruch, Ezekiel, Neriah, Seraiah, and Huldah the prophetess. The truth of the matter is, she became the wife of Salmon, or Salma, as he is called [1 Chronicles 2:11]. And in the Targum on Ruth 4:20 [it] is said [that Salmon was] of Bethlehem; he was the son of Nahshon or Naasson, a famous prince in Judah, and the head and captain of the tribe [Numbers 1:7, 12]. And from Rahab sprung the Messiah, another instance of a Gentile in the genealogy of Christ…”

Rahab became indeed the wife of Salmon, and they brought forth Boaz, the later husband of Ruth.

The New International Version translates Matthew 1:5-6: “Salmon the father of Boaz, whose mother was Rahab, Boaz the father of Obed, whose mother was Ruth, Obed the father of Jesse, and Jesse the father of King David…”

The Living Bible states: “Salmon was the father of Boaz (Rahab was his mother)…”

The Jerusalem Bible states: “Salmon fathered Boaz, whose mother was Rahab…”

Therefore, there should not be any doubt that the harlot Rahab was indeed an ancestor of Jesus Christ.

Lead Writer: Norbert Link

Why did Sarah lie?

Sarah, the wife of Abraham, is described in Scripture as a faithful and righteous woman (Isaiah 51:1-2; Hebrews 11:11; 1 Peter 3:5-6). Still, we read that she broke the ninth commandment and lied on several occasions. There are mainly two different sets of circumstances, inducing Sarah to lie.

Sarah’s first lie is recorded in Genesis 18. God appeared with two angels to Abraham and Sarah and promised them that they would have a son within a year. Genesis 18:11-15 states:

“Now Abraham and Sarah were old, well advanced in age; and Sarah had passed the age of childbearing. Therefore Sarah laughed within herself, saying, ‘After I have grown old, shall I have pleasure, my lord being old also?’ And the LORD said to Abraham, ‘Why did Sarah laugh, saying, “Shall I surely bear a child, since I am old?” Is anything too hard for the LORD? At the appointed time I will return to you, according to the time of life, and Sarah shall have a son.’ But Sarah denied it, saying, ‘I did not laugh,’ for she was afraid. And He said, ‘No, but you did laugh!'”

Sarah denied or lied against the truth because she was afraid. She did not want to admit that she had not enough faith.

Matthew Henry’s Commentary on the Whole Bible states:

“‘She denied, saying, I did not laugh,’ thinking nobody could contradict her: she told this lie, because she was afraid; but it was in vain to attempt concealing it from an all-seeing eye; she was told, to her shame, ‘Thou didst laugh…’ It is a shame to do amiss, but a greater shame to deny it; for thereby we add iniquity to our iniquity. Fear of a rebuke often betrays us into this snare. See Isaiah 57:11, ‘Whom hast thou feared, that thou hast lied?’ But we deceive ourselves if we think to impose upon God; he can and will bring truth to light, to our shame. ‘He that covers his sin cannot prosper,’ for the day is coming which will discover it.”

The second set of circumstances involving SARAH’S deceitful conduct is described in Genesis 20, when ABRAHAM told the lie that Sarah was his sister, denying the truth that she was his wife. As a consequence, King Abimelech took Sarah to become his wife. One might ask why Sarah did not speak up and tell Abimelech that she was Abraham’s wife. Why did she keep silent? Why did she cover up Abraham’s lie?

We read of an earlier account in Genesis 12:11-13:

“And it came to pass, when he [Abram, later called Abraham] was close to entering Egypt, that he said to Sarai [later called Sarah] his WIFE: ‘Indeed I know that you are a woman of beautiful countenance. Therefore it will happen, when the Egyptians see you, that they will say, “This is his wife”; and they will kill me, but they will let you live. Please SAY YOU ARE MY SISTER, that it may be well with you FOR YOUR SAKE, and that I may live because of you.”‘

God revealed to Pharaoh that Sarai was Abram’s wife. BOTH Abram and Sarai lied to Pharaoh about this. And later, BOTH repeated the same lie to Abimelech.

As God did in the case of Pharaoh, He revealed the truth to Abimelech–this time in a dream. We read in Genesis 20:4:

“But Abimelech had not come near her, and he said, ‘Lord, will You slay a righteous nation also? Did he not say to me, “She is my sister”? And she, even SHE HERSELF SAID, “He is my brother.” In the integrity of my heart and innocence of my hands I have done this.'”

Why did Sarah participate in Abraham’s lie? Why did she even repeat it herself?

We read in Genesis 20:10-13:

“Then Abimelech said to Abraham, ‘What did you have in view, that you have done this thing?’ And Abraham said, ‘Because I thought, surely the fear of God is not in this place; and they will kill me on account of my wife. But indeed she is truly my sister. She is the daughter of my father, but not the daughter of my mother; and she became my wife. And it came to pass, when God caused me to wander from my father’s house, that I said to her, “This is YOUR KINDNESS that you should do FOR ME: in every place, wherever we go, say of me, ‘He is my brother.”‘

Abraham’s and Sarah’s lies are not justified by the fact that Sarah was Abraham’s half-sister. In God’s eyes, they were husband and wife, and God calls them consistently that way in His word. Abraham and Sarah suppressed the truth that they were married, with the intent to deceive their neighbors.

Abraham had asked Sarah to lie in order to save his life, placing a guilt trip on her by suggesting that she would be unkind to him if she did not tell the lie, and she would be without the protection of her beloved husband if they killed him and let her live. Sarah obeyed her husband and broke one of God’s commandments in the process. She should have never done this. Even though we read that wives are to submit to their husbands, we are also told that this must be done “in the Lord” (Ephesians 5:22). That is, they must never violate God’s Will, and if a demand or request of their husbands would violate God’s Word, they must disobey. We are told that we must obey God, rather than man, in a conflict situation (Acts 5:29).

Of course, Abraham should have never asked Sarah to lie for him or to actively or passively participate in or condone his lie. Both showed a lack of faith. They were afraid that if they were to tell the truth, Abraham would be killed. They did not fully believe that God would be powerful enough to protect them.

But we also read that both Abraham and Sarah grew in faith, as we all must do (Romans 4:19).

Wives are not to obey their husbands when they are asked to do wrong. And husbands must not listen to the voice of their wives when they ask or suggest to them that they do or say something which would violate God’s Will.

Even before God appeared with two angels to tell Abraham and Sarah that they would have a son within a year, God had already promised descendants to Abraham (Genesis 15:1-5, 18). God had specifically said to Abraham (then called Abram) that “one who will come from your own body shall be your heir” (verse 4).

But as time progressed and Abraham and Sarah remained childless, they began to doubt in God’s promise and reasoned that they had to produce offspring through Abraham and Sarah’s maid, Hagar (Genesis 16:1-2). This episode showed a lack of faith of both Abraham and Sarah. This is perhaps another reason why Sarah later denied that she had laughed when God repeated His promise that they would have a son. She realized that she had again, for a second time, manifested a lack of faith in God’s Word and Power.

However, there were other occasions when God told Abraham to listen to the voice of his wife (Genesis 21:8-12). It is always a matter of what God’s Will is in a particular matter.

Generally, Abraham and Sarah obeyed God and kept His commandments. But they were not perfect and sinned on occasion–and every lie is a sin against God and neighbor. When they realized their sin and repented, God forgave them, and they will be in God’s Kingdom and one of God’s born-again sons and daughters, ruling under Christ in the Millennium and beyond (Hebrews 11:39-40).

Lead Writer: Norbert Link

Does Revelation 3:12 mean that there will be nothing to do in the Kingdom of God when it says “and he shall go out no more”?

Let us read what this verse says: “He who overcomes, I will make him a pillar in the temple of My God, and he shall go out no more. I will write on him the name of My God and the name of the city of My God, the New Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from My God. And I will write on him My new name.”

Does this mean that we will be looking into the face of God for eternity or strumming on harps with no constructive work to do?

First of all, it is critical to show that work is something that is important to God. We read in Genesis 2:2 that “on the seventh day God ended His work which He had done, and He rested on the seventh day from all His work which He had done.” In John 5:17 we read: “But Jesus answered them, ‘My Father has been working until now, and I have been working.’” Luke 13:14 also tells us that Jesus said: “There are six days on which men ought to work…”

This aspect of work is a theme throughout the Word of God. This is further emphasised in 1 Thessalonians 4:11: “…that you also aspire to lead a quiet life, to mind your own business, and to work with your own hands, as we commanded you.” In 1 Corinthians 4:12, we read: “And we labour, working with our hands…” In 2 Thessalonians 3:10. Paul writes: “For even when we were with you, we commanded you this: If anyone will not work, neither shall he eat.” Therefore, we see that work is a principle that God promotes throughout the entirety of His Word, and we are expected to follow that important example.

We know that the Kingdom of God will be on earth and that the saints will be kings and priests (Revelation 1:6; 5:9-10). What will our job be then? There will be much work to do after the horrors of the Great Tribulation and the Day of the Lord. Jesus Christ will rule in supreme power from Jerusalem, assisted by those who have been made members of the Family of God in the first resurrection (compare Matthew 24:31; 1 Corinthians 15:50-53).

Towns and cities will have to be rebuilt, and the general infrastructure will have to be restored. Much work will be needed to restore the war-ravaged earth at that time. And we will be there to help those who have come through this end-time period, which Daniel 12:1 describes as follows: “There shall be a time of trouble Such as never was since there was a nation Even to that time.”

We will have to help in every way possible, and Isaiah 30:20-21 is instructive in this regard: “And though the Lord gives you The bread of adversity and the water of affliction, Yet your teachers will not be moved into a corner anymore, But your eyes shall see your teachers. Your ears shall hear a word behind you, saying, ‘This is the way, walk in it,’ Whenever you turn to the right hand Or whenever you turn to the left.” We will be there, as members of the Family of God, to help and assist everyone left on earth at that time, and those born during the Millennium, and that will be our job for 1,000 years.

And the work won’t stop then. Indications are that the Great White Throne Judgment or the “second resurrection,” following the Millennium, will last for 100 years (compare Isaiah 65:20), and at that time all who have ever lived and who were never given a chance for salvation, will have their first opportunity. One hundred years to help guide and assist probably tens or maybe scores of billions of human beings in the second resurrection (Revelation 20:11-12)!

And so we see this pattern of work from the first book in the Bible to the last. It is the way of God, and He doesn’t change in that regard (Malachi 3:6; Hebrews 13:8).

God’s government will continue to expand throughout eternity. Isaiah 9:6-7 states: “For unto us a Child is born, Unto us a Son is given; And the government will be upon His shoulder. And His name will be called Wonderful, Counsellor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. Of the increase of His government and peace There will be no end, Upon the throne of David and over His kingdom, To order it and establish it with judgment and justice From that time forward, even forever. The zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this.”

What will happen after the Millennium and the second and third resurrections (Revelation 20:13-15)?

As we point out in our free booklets, “God Is a Family” and “Angels, Demons and the Spirit World,” it is not only the potential of man to rule the earth, but also the entire universe. Right now, Christ, by His power, is upholding the universe (“all things” in Hebrews 1:2, which is translated by Moffat as “the universe”), but it is the potential of man to assist Christ in that endeavor.

We read in Revelation 22:5 that the saints will reign forever and ever, and Romans 8:19, 22 tells us that the whole creation–the entire universe–waits for the revealing of the sons of God.

In a mini-study in the Good News magazine in December 1982, the following comments were made.

“But is there really enough ‘out there’ for our estimated 200 billion spirit sons of God to rule? Astronomers estimate that there are more than 40,000,000,000,000,000,000,000 (40 sextillion) stars that are suns to other planets. This figure is virtually impossible to comprehend. If our estimate of 200 billion sons of God is accurate, that means that each member of God’s family would be responsible for maintaining and developing 200 billion stars and their attendant planets. Those stars and planets would make up a galaxy twice the estimated size of our own Milky Way galaxy. This is your awesome potential – the glorious destiny God has in store for those who seek to do His will and follow His way. Yes, you were born to rule.”

Of course, if the estimated figure of 200 billion sons of God is greatly over-estimated in this article, then a fewer number would mean an even greater workload for born-again members of the Family of God.

Ultimately, this whole earth and the universe will be set on fire, to be changed from corruption into spirit (2 Peter 3:7, 10-13). But that spirit world will be very real–in fact, more real than this physical world–with myriads of suns and planets, but all consisting of spirit. And it will be our task, as spirit beings, to rule first the physical and then the spirit world.

We don’t know how much time will transpire, after the third resurrection and before the creation of the new heaven and the new earth (Revelation 21:1)–the change from physical to spirit. The saints might rule over this physical universe for quite some time, before this physical world will be changed into a spirit world and the New Jerusalem will descend to the new earth (Revelation 21:2-27; 22:1-5, 14). (Please see our Q&A, explaining the “New Jerusalem.”)

But after that change from physical to spirit, the saints will continue to rule the spirit world, under God the Father and Jesus Christ.

And so, having established the importance and continuance of work in the physical and spiritual realm, what does Revelation 3:12 mean when it says that “I will make him a pillar in the temple of My God, and he shall go out no more.”? It cannot mean, doing nothing. That is not the way of God. We must remember that we will be able to be anywhere at the speed of thought and so those restrictions that we currently have as human beings will be lifted.

Therefore, “going out no more” surely has to be in a spiritual context in the sense of a permanence in the God Family. Since the biblical reference to the temple of God can refer to the spiritual temple–the church of God–the reference in Revelation 3:12 refers to the fact that God’s saints will always be part of that temple. Once they are born again, they will never fall away; they will never “go out” or be cast out of that spiritual temple. They will always be “pillars”–necessary parts–in God’s spiritual temple, and God’s name will be on their foreheads (Revelation 22:4). As spirit beings, we will have so much work to do and will be completely dedicated to God and His way, and that for eternity. That has to be very encouraging news.

Lead Writers: Brian Gale (Great Britain) and Norbert Link

Can you shed some light on the significance of a "red heifer" to be born prior to the coming of the Messiah?

Let us first of all understand that there is nothing in the Bible demanding a red heifer to be born prior to the return of Jesus Christ. It is true, however, that some Jews and Christians have attached an end-time application to the ancient Old Testament ritual of the killing of a red heifer for purposes of purification. As will be explained herein, this ritual is no longer in force. But some Jews and Christians believe that the ritual must be applied today, as a prerequisite for the commencement of sacrifices and the building of a third temple, and they expect a red heifer soon to be born. (In fact, when conducting a Yahoo search on the Internet, one receives about 280,000 results for “red heifer.”).

To obtain a better understanding as to the rationale behind this expectation, let us first review the rituals pertaining to the red heifer, as described in Numbers 19.

The Wikipedia Encyclopedia informs us that “The Red Heifer… was a sacrificial cow whose ashes were used for the ritual purification of people who came into contact with a corpse. According to Numbers 19:2: ‘Speak unto the children of Israel, that they bring thee a red heifer without spot, wherein is no blemish, and upon which never came [a] yoke’… The heifer is then slain (Numbers 19:3) and burned outside of the camp (Numbers 19:3–6)… the remaining ashes are placed in a vessel containing pure water (Numbers 19:9).

“In order to purify a person who has become ritually contaminated by contact with a corpse, water from the vessel is sprinkled on him, using a bunch of hyssop, on the third and seventh day of the decontamination process (Numbers 19:18–19)… The kohen [Levitical priest] who performs the ritual must… bathe himself and his clothes in water. He shall be deemed impure until evening.”

Just based on this description, it is indeed difficult to see at first how the ancient “red heifer” ritual could have anything to do with the coming of the Messiah or even a purification ceremony pertaining to a third temple. However, we should take note of the fact that the ritual was applied in conjunction with the tabernacle in the wilderness, the predecessor of the temple (compare Numbers 19:4, 13).

Based on their “interpretations,” the “oral law” and other traditional “additions” to the Law of God, Judaism has established all kinds of requirements in relationship to the “red heifer” and the “water of purification.”

The Wikipedia Encyclopedia explains:

“… the presence of two black hairs [or two white hairs, see below] invalidates a Red Heifer [as the Jews understand the requirement that the red heifer must be “without spot” as meaning, “without any other color but red,” or “having no mixture of any other color but red”]… there are various other requirements, such as natural birth (Caesarian section renders a Heifer candidate invalid). The water must be ‘living’ or spring water… Rainwater… cannot be used in the Red Heifer ceremony. The Mishnah reports that in the days of the Temple in Jerusalem, water for the ritual came from the Spring of Shiloah…

“To ensure complete ritual purity of those involved, enormous care was taken to ensure that no-one involved in the Red Heifer ceremony could have had any contact with the dead… The Mishnah recounts that children were used to draw and carry the water for the ceremony, children born and reared in isolation for the specific purpose of ensuring that they never came into contact with a corpse…

“According to the Mishnah, the ceremony of the burning of the Red Heifer itself took place on the Mount of Olives. A pure priest slaughtered the Heifer, and totally sprinkled of its blood in the direction of the Temple seven times… In recent years, the site of the burning of the Red Heifer on the Mount of Olives has been tentatively located by archaeologist Yonatan Adler…

“The existence of a red heifer that conforms with all of the rigid requirements [of Jewish tradition] is a biological anomaly. The animal must be entirely of one color, and there are a series of tests listed by the rabbis to ensure this, for instance, the hair of the cow must be absolutely straight (to ensure that the cow had not previously been yoked, as this is a disqualifier). According to Jewish tradition, only nine Red Heifers were actually slaughtered in the period extending from Moses to the destruction of the Second Temple…

“The absolute rarity of the animal, combined with the mystical ritual in which it is used, have given the Red Heifer special status in Jewish tradition… Because the state of ritual purity obtained through the ashes of a Red Heifer is a necessary prerequisite for participating in any Temple service, efforts have been made in modern times by Jews wanting to rebuild the Temple to locate a red heifer and recreate the ritual…”

Gershom Gorenberg writes the following in “The End of Days,” copyright 2001:

“… this sacrifice [of the red heifer] must be performed outside the Temple, yet the heifer’s ash becomes the key to the sanctuary: It alone can cleanse a man or woman tainted by contact with human death… anyone who touches a corpse, or bone, or grave, anyone who even enters the room of a dead body, is rendered impure, and must not enter the Temple. Yet proximity to death is an unavoidable part of life… So to free a person from impurity… mix the heifer’s cinder with water, and sprinkle the mixture on him… Two white hairs would disqualify [the heifer]… The last ashes of the last heifer ran out sometime after the Romans razed the Temple in Jerusalem in the year 70. Every Jew became impure by reason of presumed contact with death…”

We need to understand that the temporary ritual pertaining to the red heifer pointed at and foreshadowed the atoning Sacrifice of Jesus Christ. Matthew Henry’s Commentary on the Whole Bible explains:

“This burning of the heifer [was not] performed at the altar… yet was typical of the death and sufferings of Christ… It must not only be without blemish, typifying the spotless purity and sinless perfection of the Lord Jesus, but it must [be] a red heifer, because of the rarity of the colour… Christ, as man, was the Son of Adam, red earth, and we find him red in his apparel, red with his own blood, and red with the blood of his enemies. And it must be one on which never came [a] yoke, which was not insisted on in other sacrifices, but thus was typified the voluntary offer of the Lord Jesus… our Lord Jesus, being made sin and a curse for us, suffered without the gate…

“Eleazar was to sprinkle the blood directly before the door of the tabernacle, and looking steadfastly towards it… This signified the satisfaction that was made to God by the death of Christ, our great high priest, who by the eternal Spirit… offered himself without spot unto God…”

Adam Clarke’s Commentary on the Bible adds:

“The ordinance of the red heifer was a sacrifice of general application. All the people were to have an interest in it, and therefore the people at large are to provide the sacrifice… the ordinance of the red heifer… was designed to typify the sacrifice of our blessed Lord.”

As mentioned before, the Sacrifice of Jesus Christ superseded the red heifer ceremony. Paul writes in Hebrews 9:9-10 that the Old Testament rituals and fleshly ordinances were only imposed until the time of reformation. In this context, he says in Hebrews 9:11-14:

“But Christ came as High Priest of the good things to come… Not with the blood of goats and calves, but with His own blood He entered the Most Holy Place once for all, having obtained eternal redemption. For if the blood of bulls and goats and THE ASHES OF A HEIFER, sprinkling the unclean, sanctifies for the purifying of the flesh, how much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered Himself without spot to God, cleanse your conscience from dead works to serve the living God.”

The Jamieson, Fausset and Brown commentary writes:

“The water of separation, made of the ashes of the red heifer, was the provision for removing ceremonial defilement whenever incurred by contact with the dead. As she was slain without the camp, so Christ… The ashes were laid by for constant use; so the continually cleansing effects of Christ’s blood, once for all shed. In our wilderness journey we are continually contracting defilement by contact with the spiritually dead, and with dead works…”

Paul made very clear that Christ came to “take away” sacrifice and offering (Hebrews 10:8-10), and that there is no longer a requirement of offering for sin (Hebrews 10:18). He wrote that the Old Covenant with its rituals has been made obsolete (Hebrews 8:13). Rather than being purified with water mixed with ashes from a red heifer, “let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience and our bodies washed with pure water” (Hebrews 10:22). Paul also explains in Galatians 3:24-25 that we are no longer under the tutor of the ritual law.

It is also interesting to note that the procedures for the inauguration of the Millennial temple, which are outlined in Ezekiel 40, beginning with verse 18, do not mention a red heifer or water of purification.

In conclusion, the red heifer ritual is no longer biblically commanded, and the Bible does not demand the birth and sacrifice of a red heifer and its ashes as a requirement for the return of Christ. However, it is very likely that Jewish clerics may insist that the sacrifice of such a heifer to produce the ashes for the water of purification of the Temple Mount and the temple itself will be essential for the reconstruction of the temple and the coming of the Messiah. We can therefore expect that the diligent search for a “pure” and “spotless” red heifer will continue.

Lead Writer: Norbert Link

Would you please explain the concept of the "Jubilee Year"?

In Old Testament times, God established a system whereby the poor would not be in perpetual poverty. God did this in His great mercy, knowing what human nature is like, and that there are those who accumulate and those who squander. He did not want a few extremely wealthy individuals ruling over the masses who were just getting by, or who became and were poor. In reflecting on the situation of this world, Christ said in Matthew 26:11: “For you have the poor with you always, but Me you do not have always.” He knew that as long as Satan rules this world; as long as human carnality exists; and as long as societies work in the way they do; the poor would always be among us.

Of course, this was not what God had intended. He told the ancient Israelites in Deuteronomy 15:4 that if God would richly bless the people, “there may be no poor among you.” But anticipating that ancient Israel would not be obedient enough so that God could bless them beyond measure, He said in Deuteronomy 15:11: “For the poor will never cease from the land…”

Those who were too poor to pay their debts could sell their property and even “sell” themselves to their creditors to work for them. But God saw to it that there would be the possibility of being “freed” from such indebtedness, including by means of the “Jubilee Year.”

When did the Jubilee Year begin and what did it entail?

We read in Leviticus 25:8-14:

“And you shall count seven sabbaths of years for yourself, seven times seven years; and the time of the seven sabbaths of years shall be to you forty-nine years. Then you shall cause the trumpet of the Jubilee to sound on the tenth day of the seventh month; on the Day of Atonement you shall make the trumpet to sound throughout all your land. And you shall consecrate the fiftieth year, and proclaim liberty throughout all the land to all its inhabitants. It shall be a Jubilee for you; and each of you shall return to his possession, and each of you shall return to his family. That fiftieth year shall be a Jubilee to you; in it you shall neither sow nor reap what grows of its own accord, nor gather the grapes of your untended vine. For it is the Jubilee; it shall be holy to you; you shall eat its produce from the field. In this Year of Jubilee, each of you shall return to his possession. And if you sell anything to your neighbor or buy from your neighbor’s hand, you shall not oppress one another.”

Notice that the Jubilee Year began on the Day of Atonement. This annual Holy Day points at a future time when mankind will be released from the captivity of Satan and from the oppression of this present evil world. At the time of ancient Israel, the Jubilee Year designated a release from all debts and a repossession of the land which had been initially allocated to the debtor.

Somebody could “buy” or better lease a person’s farmland, and the price was always in relationship to how many years were left before the Jubilee Year. Obviously, if there were only a few years remaining, one would not pay a large sum to use the person’s land. Leviticus 25:15-16 says:

“According to the number of years after the Jubilee you shall buy from your neighbor, and according to the number of years of crop he shall sell to you. According to the multitude of years you shall increase its price, and according to the fewer number of years you shall diminish its price; for he sells to you according to the number of the years of the crops.”

The return to a person’s farmland or his rural or suburban residence was a guarantee. Such land returned to the prior owner every fifty years.

Notice what God says about the land, in Leviticus 25:23: “The land shall not be sold permanently, for the land is Mine; for you are strangers and sojourners with Me.”

It is interesting that a person or a family member could redeem his sold farmland prior to the Jubilee Year (compare Leviticus 25:24-28). On the other hand, if a man owned a house in a walled city and sold it, he or his family had a year to redeem it. After that, it was gone for good. Leviticus 25:29-30 says: “If a man sells a house in a walled city, then he may redeem it within a whole year after it is sold; within a full year he may redeem it. But if it is not redeemed within the space of a full year, then the house in the walled city shall belong permanently to him who bought it, throughout his generations. It shall not be released in the Jubilee.”

If the house and the land on which the house was built were in the country, it was released in the Jubilee Year, as Leviticus 25:31 says: “However the houses of villages which have no wall around them shall be counted as the fields of the country. They may be redeemed, and they shall be released in the Jubilee.”

As mentioned, slaves and those who “sold” themselves to their creditors for incurred debts were also released in the Jubilee Year. Leviticus 25:50 says: “Thus he shall reckon with him who bought him: The price of his release shall be according to the number of years, from the year that he was sold to him until the Year of Jubilee; it shall be according to the time of a hired servant for him.”

The Jubilee Year was instituted so that a person who sold himself or his land could obtain release, liberty and freedom from debt and servitude, and return to the land. This institution prevented the few from accumulating all the wealth and the poor from being perpetually poor or in never-ending slavery, due to mismanagement or bad circumstances in their lives. Out of love and mercy, and in recognition of man’s human nature and Satan’s rulership over this world, God provided a way to equalize the playing field to give every one a fresh start and hopefully, to allow those who might have acted foolishly, to become somewhat wiser and not make again the same financial mistakes.

We should also note that every seventh year was a land Sabbath, during which no crops were to be sown and harvested, and that the land was also to rest from cultivation on the Jubilee Year (Leviticus 25:11).

In a Plain Truth article from February, 1986, titled, “The Debt Bomb–When Will It Explode?”, the following was stated about the Jubilee Year:

“[In ancient Israel, God had provided for] the canceling of short-term debts at the end of every seven years (Deut. 15:1-11) and the return of forfeited real estate every 50 years (Lev. 25:8-17). For example, if through hard times one had to borrow a small sum of money and, through unforeseen circumstances, was unable to repay the sum within the time frame of a seven-year cycle, his debt was to be forgiven him by his creditor. Or if an Israelite mismanaged his family property (farmland and rural or suburban residence), on the jubilee year his property was to be returned to him or his family (Lev. 25:8-10) if relatives had not already been able to redeem the land (see verse 25)…

“God’s jubilee offers humans what they have needed–and what no man-devised system of economics has ever been able to give us–a financial clean slate: the chance men have only dreamed of, to begin anew and learn from past mistakes. The jubilee year will be a cornerstone in the reestablishment of God’s government on earth (Luke 4:16-19). The ‘acceptable year of the Lord’ that Jesus quoted out of Isaiah 61 is the restoration of the jubilee year.”

We find an interesting prophecy, pertaining to the Millennium, when Jesus Christ rules on this earth, in Ezekiel 46:16-18: “Thus says the Lord God: ‘If the prince gives a gift of some of his inheritance to any of his sons, it shall belong to his sons; it is their possession by inheritance. But if he gives a gift of some of his inheritance to one of his servants, it shall be his until the year of liberty (compare Leviticus 25:10), after which it shall return to the prince. But his inheritance shall belong to his sons; it shall become theirs. Moreover the prince shall not take any of the people’s inheritance by evicting them from their property; he shall provide an inheritance for his sons from his own property, so that none of My people may be scattered from his property.'”

This Scripture addresses issues that will arise in the future and does seem to be an application of the Jubilee Year. The Jamieson, Fausset and Brown commentary explains:

“The prince’s possession is to be inalienable, and any portion given to a servant is to revert to his sons at the year of jubilee, that he may have no temptation to spoil his people of their inheritance… The mention of the year of jubilee implies that there is something literal meant, besides the spiritual sense. The jubilee year was restored after the captivity [Josephus, Antiquities, 14.10, 6; 1 Maccabees 6:49]. Perhaps it will be restored under Messiah’s coming reign.”

As stated above, we also read that Christ quoted in Luke 4:17-19 from a passage in the book of Isaiah, dealing with the proclamation of liberty and the “acceptable year of the LORD.” Many feel that this is also a reference to the Jubilee Year. For instance, the Jamieson, Fausset and Brown commentary states that the phrase “acceptable year” is “an allusion to the jubilee year… a year of universal release for person and property.” Albert Barnes’ Notes on the Bible agrees, stating: “There is, perhaps, here, an allusion to the year of jubilee – the fiftieth year, when the trumpet was blown, and through the whole land proclamation was made of the liberty of Hebrew slaves, of the remission of debts, and of the restoration of possessions to their original families.”

When Christ came and proclaimed the “acceptable year of the LORD,” He made it clear that it was now possible for His disciples to obtain spiritual freedom from Satan’s slavery and release from the captivity of their debts, which they incurred because of sin; i.e., death (Romans 6:23).

At the same time, based on the foregoing, it appears that the Jubilee Year will be enforced quite literally at the beginning of the Millennium. It appears that at that time, release from physical debt and slavery will be proclaimed in all the land, and the individual nations will be restored to their God-ordained lands (compare Acts 17:26). However, it appears unlikely that the aspect of the Jubilee Year will be upheld in the Millennium, which would refer to [renewed] slavery, including slavery because of debt. (However, as expressed in Ezekiel 46:16-18 (quoted above), other aspects of the Jubilee Year will apparently be in force.) Notice what we wrote in a related Q&A on slavery:

“As to the primary reason for slavery–capture in war–this concept won’t exist anymore in the Millennium as there will be no more wars in the Millennium (Isaiah 2:1-4). Also, since all will live in prosperity and there will be no more poverty, that reason for slavery won’t exist anymore, either (Micah 4:1-4; Zechariah 3:10). Finally, ‘slavery’ for punishment of crime or debt in the Millennium might likewise be non-existent, as people might not be allowed to actually carry out crimes or go into debt, necessitating that kind of punishment or treatment (compare Isaiah 30:20-21). We should also mention that it was never God’s original intent that men should be poor in the first place (Deuteronomy 15:1-6). Nor was it God’s original intent that men should go to war… God had never intended that slavery should exist at all… Paul also prohibited Christians from becoming voluntarily slaves of men… Based on the foregoing, we feel that it is highly unlikely that there will exist any slavery in the Millennium… it was never God’s intent that there should be any kind of slavery in the first place–had mankind chosen to OBEY God. It is highly unlikely that God will use men to enslave others in the Millennium.”

Man will be taught how to live responsibly, and God will bless man with prosperity and peace. What a tremendous time that will be!

Lead Writers: Rene Messier and Norbert Link

What is known about the biblical "Urim and Thummim"?

The first time that the Bible mentions “Urim and Thummim” is in Exodus 28:30, in connection with the garments for the high priest; especially, the “ephod” and the “breastplate of judgment.” The breastplate was to be placed on the ephod (Exodus 28:28), and verse 30 reads: “And you shall put in the breastplate of judgment the Urim and the Thummim, and they shall be over Aaron’s heart when he goes in before the LORD.” A similar statement can be found in Leviticus 8:8.

In Numbers 27:21, only the Urim is mentioned [but it has been understood that it included the Thummim as well–“Urim” is used here as a summary term for both]. On this occasion, God asked Moses to transfer some of his authority to Joshua. Verse 21 reads: “He [Joshua] shall stand before Eleazar the priest, who shall inquire before the LORD for him by the judgment of the Urim–at his word they shall go out, and at his word they shall come in…”

When the high priest was to inquire for the civil leader of God’s people, he was to be dressed in his official garments, containing the Urim and the Thummim.

In Deuteronomy 33:8, the Urim and the Thummim are mentioned in reverse order [showing that both were equally important], relating to the blessing with which “Moses, the man of God,” blessed Levi: “And of Levi he said: ‘Let Your Thummim and Your Urim be with Your holy one [Lit., Your pious man]…'” In other words, God decreed that the Urim and the Thummim should be with the Levites; in particular, based on Exodus 28:30 and Numbers 27:21, with the high priest who had to be from the tribe of Levi.

In 1 Samuel 28:6, only the Urim is mentioned [but by implication, it included the Thummim]: “And when Saul inquired of the LORD, the LORD did not answer him, either by dreams or by Urim or by the prophets.” We see here that somewhat of a distinction is made between dreams and prophets, and the Urim. At the same time, some kind of prophetic revelation was involved when using the Urim and the Thummim–but it occurred through the high priest, not through dreams or prophets.

We find another direct reference to both the Urim and the Thummim in the book of Ezra, describing the time after the destruction of the first temple and before the erection and completion of the second temple. The names of several of the Jews who had returned from Babylon were not found in the registry of priests, and we read in Ezra 2:62-63:

“These sought their listing among those who were registered by genealogy, but they were not found; therefore they were excluded from the priesthood as defiled. And the governor said to them that they should not eat of the most holy things till a priest could consult with the Urim and Thummim.” We find a repetition of this passage in Nehemiah 7:64-65. These passages might imply that at that time, no priest was able to reveal God’s Will through the Urim and the Thummim.

We might also note that the Septuagint refers to the Urim and the Thummim in its translation of 1 Samuel 14:41: “Then Saul said, ‘O Lord, God of Israel, why have you not answered your servant this day? If the guilt is in me or in Jonathan my son, O Lord, God of Israel, give Urim; and if you indicate that it is in the people of Israel, give Thummim.’ And Jonathan and Saul were taken, but the people escaped.”

However, this text is highly suspect. The New King James Bible, which is based on the Masoretic Text, simply states: “Therefore Saul said to the LORD God of Israel, ‘Give a perfect lot.’ So Saul and Jonathan were taken, but the people escaped.”

On the other hand, there IS general agreement that the previous inquiry of God (compare verses 36-37) through the high priest Ahijah, who was wearing the ephod (compare verse 3), did occur with the help of the Urim and the Thummim. Considering the close connection between the high priest’s ephod and the Urim and Thummim, it is reasonable to conclude that Saul’s inquiry involved the use of the Urim and the Thummim. But apparently, verse 41 does not refer to such kind of inquiry, but strictly and only to the casting of lots, as God had not answered Saul before through the Urim and the Thummim.

Another indirect reference to the Urim and the Thummim can be found in 1 Samuel 23:6, 9-12, when David inquired of the LORD after the high priest Abiathar arrived with the ephod (verse 6). David specifically asked for the ephod to be brought to him (verse 9).

A similar episode is described in 1 Samuel 30:7-8. In this case, the inquiry resulted not only in a specific answer to a specific question, but in additional statements from the LORD, showing that the use of the Urim and the Thummim might have involved more than (just) the casting of lots.

It is true, however, that most believe that the Urim and Thummim was a “lot” oracle, but this concept is not without problems, as we have seen. Realizing the uncertainties, the Good News Bible includes the following annotation to the description of the Urim and the Thummim: “Two objects used by the priest to determine God’s will; it is not known precisely how they are used.”

We are not told in Scripture what, exactly, the Urim and Thummim were, nor how they were used, but we are told that they were in existence at the time of Moses; that they were known at the time of Saul and apparently David; and that they were referred to in some way at the time of Ezra and Nehemiah.

Since the Bible does not describe the nature of the Urim and the Thummim, nor their physical appearance, there have been many speculative attempts to visualize and identify them.

Flavius Josephus seemed to describe the Urim and the Thummim as the twelve stones or gems of the breastplate on the ephod of the high priest (arranged in rows and engraved with the names of the twelve tribes of Israel), and possibly also with two sardonyx stones on the shoulder pieces of the ephod, saying that light flashed from them to show the presence of God. He also wrote that when the light ceased flashing, God showed His displeasure.

Another Jewish tradition has it that when one stone on the breastplate did not shine, while the others were, this phenomenon identified the guilty tribe.

When attempts are made to translate the terms “Urim” and “Thummim,” the most common renditions are “revelation and truth,” “manifestations and truth,” and “lights and perfections.” The Jerusalem Talmud writes: “Urim… illuminated Israel and Thummim… perfected the way before them.” Luther referred to them as “light and fullness,” or “light and justice.”

There is no consensus as to when God ceased to reveal His Will through the Urim and the Thummim. Josephus stated that their cessation took place about 105 B.C. The Mishna stated that the cessation took place when the first prophets died. Some refer to the first prophets as David, Samuel and Solomon, others as all the prophets except Haggai, Zechariah and Malachi, saying that the cessation took place when the first temple was destroyed. Others stated that the cessation took place when the second temple was destroyed, in 70 A.D. However, many commentaries state that the Urim and Thummim were missing in the second temple.

In John Gill’s Exposition of the Entire Bible, the following comments are made regarding Haggai 2:9:

“The Jews… themselves [say] there were several things wanting in the latter [temple] which were in the former [temple], as the ‘ark’, the ‘Urim’ and ‘Thummim’, the ‘fire’ from heaven, the ‘Shechinah’ (or, as in some books, the anointing oil, and, in others, the cherubim), and the ‘Holy Ghost’: by one of their writers…, they are reckoned in this order, the ark, the mercy seat, and cherubim, one; the Shechinah or divine Majesty, the second; the Holy Ghost, which is prophecy, the third; Urim and Thummim the fourth: and the fire from heaven the fifth…”

Albert Barnes’ Notes on the Bible adds:

“Those five things, the absence whereof they felt, were connected with their atoning worhip or God’s presence among them; ‘the ark with the mercy-seat and the cherubim, the Urim and Tummin, the fire from heaven, the Shechinah, the Holy Spirit.'”

Similarily Matthew Henry’s Commentary on the Whole Bible:

“…the Jews [say] that several of the divine glories of the first temple were wanting in this [second temple] – the ark, the urim and thummim, the fire from heaven, and the Schechinah…”

The connection between the Urim and the Thummim and the existence of the temple, and their cessation with the destruction of the (first or second) temple, could be meaningful.

In his remarkable work, “The Urim and Thummim,” Cornelis van Dam informs us on page 101 that “in medieval Judaism the messianic expectation was great. The [Urim and Thummim] were not forgotten in this context. It is noteworthy that they formed part of the vision for the restored temple, and the implication was that the [Urim and Thummim] would once again function… among Protestants it was often stressed (not only in the sixteenth but also in the seventeenth century) that the [Urim and Thummim] pointed at the Messiah.”

As there are currently attempts underway to prepare for the construction of the third temple and the beginning of sacrifices in Jerusalem prior to the coming of the Messiah, it will be interesting to see whether at the same time the Jews will also initiate the use of the Urim and the Thummim through a high priest from the tribe of Levi.

Lead Writer: Norbert Link

If Isaiah 53 prophesies about the first coming of Jesus Christ, why do the Jews reject this understanding?

It is true that most Jews today do not consider the passage in Isaiah 53 as a prophecy pertaining to the first coming of the Messiah. We will discuss their rationale later in this Q&A. First, let us briefly point out that Jesus Christ was and is the Messiah; and that He fulfilled precisely the prophecy in Isaiah 53.

For instance, Isaiah 53:1 (“Who has believed our report?”) is quoted in John 12:37-38 in reference to Jesus.

Isaiah 53:3 (“He is despised and rejected by men”) finds its fulfillment in Jesus Christ (compare John 1:10-11; Luke 19:14; Mark 6:3).

Isaiah 53:4 (“Surely He has borne our griefs and carried our sorrows”) is quoted in Matthew 8:17 in reference to Jesus.

Isaiah 53:5 (“And by His stripes we are healed”) is quoted in 1 Peter 2:24 in reference to Jesus.

Isaiah 53:6 (“All we like sheep have gone astray”) is quoted in 1 Peter 2:25 in reference to the Sacrifice of Jesus.

Isaiah 53:7 (“He opened not His mouth”) was fulfilled in Jesus during His “trial” (Matthew 26:63; 27:12-14), and the passage is directly quoted in Acts 8:32.

Isaiah 53:7 (“He was led as a lamb to the slaughter”) is a clear reference to Jesus Christ (John 1:29, 36)–“the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world.”

Isaiah 53:8 was fulfilled in its entirety by Jesus Christ. It reads: “He was taken from prison and from judgment… For He was cut off from the land of the living.” It is quoted, in reference to Christ, in Acts 8:33. Our free booklet, “Jesus Christ–A Great Mystery,” explains that Jesus’ “arrest” and “trial” were illegal, even under Jewish law at the time, and it shows in what way He was taken “from prison” and from a “just” sentence.

Isaiah 53:9 (“He had done no violence. Nor was any deceit found in His mouth”) was fulfilled in Christ, and even Pilate admitted repeatedly that Jesus was innocent (Mark 15:14; John 18:38; 19:4, 6).

Isaiah 53:9 (“And they made His grave with the wicked–but with the rich at His death”) was fulfilled, even in death, by Jesus Christ, as stated in Matthew 27:57-60. He was placed in the grave of a rich man, while He was meant to be buried or disposed of like any other “criminal” (Luke 23:33) in the fire of the valley of Hinnom–“Gehenna.”

Isaiah 53:9 (“Nor was any deceit in His mouth”) is quoted in 1 Peter 2:22 in reference to Jesus.

Isaiah 53:12 (“And He was numbered with the transgressors”) was fulfilled by Christ in two different ways, compare Mark 15:28 and Luke 22:37. He was numbered with the transgressors because He was crucified as a criminal, together with two criminals, and also, because Peter used His sword to defend Christ at the time of His “arrest.”

Isaiah 53:12 (“And made intercession for the transgressors”) was fulfilled by Christ, as recorded in Luke 23:34.

In addition, there are further passages in Isaiah 53 which find their direct fulfillment in Christ’s first coming.

Isaiah 53:2 said that the “Servant” (Isaiah 52:13) did not have special beauty or comeliness in His appearance as a man. Jesus fulfilled this prophecy, looking like an ordinary Jew who had to be identified to the soldiers by Judas Iscariot.

Isaiah 53:3 also predicted that men would despise the “Servant” of God and hide their faces from Him. We read in the New Testament that when Jesus was bleeding on the cross, onlookers, as it were, hid their faces from Him and despised Him (Matthew 27:39). Likewise, even His closest disciples fled from Him (Matthew 26:56), and Peter flatly denied that he knew Him (Matthew 26:75).

As Isaiah 53:5 prophesied that His “chastisement” was for our peace, the New Testament confirms that Jesus Christ fulfilled and fulfills this prophecy (Romans 5:1).

As Isaiah 53:5, 8, 11, 12 pointed out that the Messiah suffered and died for our sins, so the New Testament confirms in various places that Jesus did just that (Romans 4:25; 2 Corinthians 5:21; Galatians 3:13).

And it is of course well known that Jesus Christ died for our sins and transgressions, and that through His death and life we obtain forgiveness and justification–as this was clearly prophesied to happen in Isaiah 53:8, 10, 11.

In its introduction to Isaiah 53, Adam Clarke’s Commentary on the Bible states:

“This chapter foretells the sufferings of the Messiah, the end for which he was to die… the Messiah was to suffer for sins not his own; but that our iniquities were laid on him, and the punishment of them exacted of him… He shows the meekness and placid submission with which he suffered a violent and unjust death, with the circumstances of his dying with the wicked… and that, in consequence of his atonement, death, resurrection, and intercession, he should procure pardon and salvation to the multitudes… and ultimately triumph over all his foes… That this chapter speaks of none but Jesus must be evident to every unprejudiced reader who has ever heard the history of his sufferings and death.”

Why, then, do Jewish commentaries reject the clear meaning of Isaiah 53?

It should be pointed out that not all Jews do or did this. In fact, in ancient times, the Jews understood the passage to apply to the Messiah. The Ryrie Study Bible explains:

“Traditional Jewish interpretation understood the passage to be speaking of the Messiah, as, of course, did the early Christians, who believed Jesus to be the Messiah (Acts 8:35). Not until the 12th century did the view emerge that the NATION ISRAEL is referred to, a view that has since become DOMINANT JUDAISM. But the servant is distinguished from the ‘people’ (Isaiah 53:8). He is an innocent victim, something that could not be said of the nation (53:9).”

Sadly, however, as stated above, Judaism today rejects Isaiah 53 as applying to the Messiah, but teaches that it refers to the JEWISH NATION.

Adam Clarke’s Commentary on the Bible states in his introduction to Isaiah 53: “The Jews have endeavored to apply it to their sufferings in captivity…”

The Jewish commentary, Soncino, states this view, as follows:

“The Babylonians, or their representatives, having known the servant, i.e. EXILED ISRAEL IDEALIZED, in his humiliation and martyrdom, and now seeing his exaltation and new dignity, describe their impressions and feelings…”

In line with this thinking, the Soncino commentary “explains away” rather obvious passages in Isaiah 53 in the following “unique” way:

Regarding verse 8 (“He was cut off from the land of the living”), the commentary says: “He was cut off from his homeland by the Babylonians.” Regarding verse 9, referring to “His grave,” the commentary says that this means “the graves of the Jews in exile.”

As the idea is that the “servant” refers to the people of Israel or Judah, passages which refer to the innocence of the “Servant” are interpreted in this way:

“[Regarding verse 9:] On account of his [the people of Israel’s] sufferings he was deemed to be a sinner, and, therefore, classed with them. He was, therefore, OFTEN put to death as a criminal… [Regarding verses 10-12:] The servant’s [the people of Israel’s] patiently borne suffering for other people’s sins will culminate in the spiritual uplift of many and in his own physical or spiritual rejuvenation. He will enjoy a glorious future, offspring, long life, prosperity and influence… [Regarding verse 11:] The servant will live to use his knowledge of God to justify his ways to man…”

These terrible misinterpretations do not only totally reject the saving work of Jesus Christ and with it Jesus Christ Himself, they even apply all what Christ would do FOR the people TO the people. According to their false understanding, it is now the PEOPLE of Israel and Judah–rather than the GOD of Israel and Judah–whom Isaiah is allegedly describing. It is the PEOPLE–NOT GOD–who will bring about the work of salvation!!!

Some who teach that the “servant” refers to the people–and not the individual Messiah–refer as proof to a passage in Isaiah 53:8, which reads, “For the transgression of My people HE was stricken.”

The Jewish Soncino commentary renders the passage as, “For he was cut off out of the land of the living, For the transgression of my people to WHOM the stroke was due.”

The highly unreliable Jewish Tanakh translation renders the English as follows, obscuring the true meaning even more: “For he was cut off from the land of the living, Through the sin of my people, who deserved the punishment.”

Albert Barnes’ Notes on the Bible explains that the phrase in Isaiah 53:8, “HE was stricken” is to be rendered, literally, as “the stroke upon HIM.” The commentary continues: “[The word for “HIM”] is properly and usually in the PLURAL FORM, and it has been seized upon by those who maintain that this whole passage refers not to one individual but to some collective body, as of the people, or the prophets… as decisive of the controversy… Aben Ezra and Abarbanel… maintain the same thing, and defend the position that it can never be applied to an individual.”

However, after a lengthy discussion, Barnes summarizes: “These considerations show that it is proper to render it in the singular number, and to regard it as referring to an individual.”

The Jamieson Fausset and Brown commentary sets forth the rationale for this conclusion, as follows:

“‘…was he stricken’ — Hebrew, ‘the stroke (was laid) upon Him.’ Gesenius says the Hebrew means ‘them’; the collective body, whether of the prophets or people, to which the Jews refer the whole prophecy. But Jerome, the Syriac, and Ethiopiac versions translate it ‘Him’; so it is singular in some passages [compare Psalm 11:7 ‘His’; Job 27:23, ‘Him’; Isaiah 44:15, ‘thereto’ (in the New King James Bible, the word is translated as “to it.’)].”

Another explanation is that, as we explained in our last Q&A on Zechariah 12:10, when Christ was stricken, so was the Father:

“Rather, we need to understand that the Father suffered when Christ suffered. Even though Jesus Christ was pierced, it was God the Father who GAVE His only begotten Son to DIE for the world (John 3:16). We read that the Father was IN the Son (2 Corinthians 5:19). He experienced the Son’s suffering as well. When the Son was pierced, the Father was pierced too in that sense–God the Father who loved the Son felt the pain and suffering of His Son; He suffered WITH Christ; He felt the piercing as Christ did. Today, in the same way, both the Father and the Son feel also our pain and suffering when we go through severe trials (compare 2 Corinthians 1:5).”

But even some of the ancient Jewish commentaries which did understand Isaiah to be speaking of the Messiah–an individual–and not the nation, terribly misunderstood the meaning of the prophecy.

Let us note the following misapplications of some Jewish and other commentaries regarding the “servant,” as described in Isaiah 53.

Adam Clarke’s Commentary on the Bible states regarding Isaiah 53:3:

“Mourners covered up the lower part of their faces, and their heads… and lepers were commanded by the law… to cover their upper lip. From which circumstance it seems that the Vulgate, Aquila, Symmachus, and the Jewish commentators have taken the word nagua, stricken, in the next verse, as meaning stricken with the leprosy.”

John Gill’s Exposition of the Entire Bible adds the following in his comments to verse 4:

“‘yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted…’ it was not for any sin of his own, as the Jews imagined, but for the sins of those for whom he was a substitute; they looked upon all his sorrows and troubles in life, and at death, as the just judgment of God upon him for some gross enormities he had been guilty of; but in this they were mistaken… the Jews call the Messiah a leper… ; they say, ‘a leper of the house of Rabbi is his name’, as it is said, ‘surely he hath borne our griefs’… which shows that the ancient Jews understood this prophecy of the Messiah, though produced to prove a wrong character of him…”

The concept that the Messiah was a sinner and that He was punished for His own sins, is, of course, blasphemous. Both Isaiah 53 and the New Testament establish that Jesus Christ was sinless (Hebrews 4:15) and that He suffered and died for OUR sins (Hebrews 9:28)–not for any sins which He had committed. The concept that the Messiah was “a leper” is equally preposterous. Isaiah 53 and the New Testament confirm that the Messiah bore OUR sicknesses; not, that He suffered Himself from sicknesses such as leprosy.

Albert Barnes’ Notes on the Bible sheds more light on the Jewish misconceptions regarding the Messiah, when making the following comments regarding Isaiah 53:12:

“‘And he shall divide the spoil with the strong’-… It is language derived from the conquests of the warrior, and means that his victories would be among the great ones of the earth; his conquests over conquerors. It was from language such as this that the Jews obtained the notion, that the Messiah would be a distinguished conqueror, and hence, they looked forward to one who as a warrior would carry the standard of victory around the world…

“Notwithstanding the evidence that it refers to the Messiah, yet it is certain also that the Jews expected no such personage as that here referred to. They looked for a magnificent temporal prince and conqueror; and an impostor would not have attempted to evince the character, and to go through the circumstances… here described. What impostor ever would have attempted to fulfill a prophecy by subjecting himself to a shameful death?…

“We are then prepared to ask an infidel how he will dispose of this prophecy. That it existed seven hundred years before Christ is as certain as that the poems of Homer or Hesiod had an existence before the Christian era; as certain as the existence of any ancient document whatever. It will not do to say that it was forged – for this is not only without proof, but would destroy the credibility of all ancient writings…”

The clear answer is that Isaiah 53 refers to Jesus Christ who, being God, became man to die for our sins. He was brutally tortured, murdered, buried and resurrected. He is acting today as our merciful High Priest, and He WILL return as a conquering hero, as many New Testament Scriptures confirm (compare Revelation 19:11-16).

There is no “salvation in any other, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved” (Acts 4:12). The time will come when everybody will understand this, and also, that Isaiah prophesied about the true and only Messiah–Jesus Christ. Then, everyone will bow his knee “at the name of Jesus,” confessing that “Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father” (Philippians 2:9-11).

Lead Writer: Norbert Link

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