Some teach that God forgives our sins, even though we may not repent of them. They claim that Christ receives us "just the way we are." Isn't repentance one of the requirements for God's forgiveness?

The Bible proves that God only forgives us, if we meet certain conditions. One important condition is repentance. God does not forgive us, if we refuse to repent. Today, God has only called comparatively few and is not yet judging the rest of the world. This means, God has not yet forgiven the world, as they have not yet repented, but God does not hold them accountable at this point in time (This is not to say that sin does not have built-in penalties which a sinner will have to pay automatically). Those not called and not forgiven yet are described in Acts 17:30-31: “Truly, these times of ignorance God OVERLOOKED [not, forgave!], but now COMMANDS ALL MEN [those called] EVERYWHERE TO REPENT.” We have to REPENT of our sins before baptism (in addition to accepting Christ’s sacrifice as payment for our sins), even though we might have committed sins in ignorance (compare 1 Peter 1:13-15; Ephesians 4:17-18; 1 Timothy 1:12-13; Acts 3:17). God offers us the gift of repentance, when He calls us, but we must respond to it and accept it (2 Timothy 2:24-26; Romans 2:4).

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Please explain the difference between the Great Tribulation and the Day of the Lord. Does the Great Tribulation stop when the Day of the Lord begins? Does the Day of the Lord begin when Christ returns?

For a thorough understanding of the time frames referred to as “Great Tribulation” and “Day of the Lord,” please study our free booklet, “The Great Tribulation and the Day of the Lord.”

In short, the Great Tribulation (Matthew 24:21) is followed by the Heavenly Signs (Revelation 6:12-14; Joel 2:30-31; Matthew 24:29) and by the Day of the Lord (Revelation 6:17). The indication is, from Scripture, that the Day of the Lord begins one year before Christ’s return (compare, for example, Isaiah 34:8). But even as the Day of the Lord does not end with Christ’s return, but is ongoing, so the Great Tribulation (which begins approximately 2 1/2 years prior to the Day of the Lord) does not end, either, when the Day of the Lord starts. Rather, it continues until Satan, who causes the Great Tribulation to occur, is removed from his throne.

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Why did Joseph marry Asenath, the daughter of an Egyptian priest? Didn't this violate God's instructions against marrying a pagan non-believer?

Genesis 41:44-46 reads as follows:

“Pharaoh also said to Joseph, ‘I am Pharaoh, and without your consent no man may lift his hand or foot in all the land of Egypt.’ And Pharaoh called Joseph’s name Zaphnath-Paaneah [the Margin of the New King James Bible states here: “Probably Egyptian for ‘God Speaks and He Lives.'”]. And he gave him as a wife Asenath, the daughter of Poti-Pherah priest of On. So Joseph went out over all the land of Egypt. Joseph was thirty years old when he stood before Pharaoh king of Egypt.”

We also read, in Genesis 46:20: “And to Joseph in the land of Egypt were born Manasseh and Ephraim, whom Asenath, the daughter of Poti-Pherah priest of On, bore to him.”

In Genesis 48, we read the stirring account of Jacob’s adoption of Joseph’s two sons (Genesis 48:5); his blessing of the two sons; his placing his name (that of “Israel”) on them (v. 16); and his “setting Ephraim before Manasseh,” Joseph’s firstborn son (v. 20). Jacob prophesied that Manasseh would become a great people, but that Ephraim would be “greater than he, and his descendants shall become a multitude of nations” (v. 19). We know from history that Manasseh became the United States of America, while Ephraim became Great Britain and the Commonwealth of nations — quite literally “a multitude” of nations.

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Exodus 12:14 states that "this day shall be to you a memorial; and you shall keep it as a feast to the LORD." Some teach that this feast day or memorial, referred to in Exodus 12:14, describes the Passover. Is this correct?

It is not.

Although the Passover is at times referred to as a feast day (compare Leviticus 23: 4-5), the Bible distinguishes between the day of Passover (on Nisan or Abib 14) and the seven Days of Unleavened Bread (on Nisan or Abib 15-21). [The first month of the year, in accordance with the Hebrew Calendar, is called Abib or Nisan. Abib, the original name, means “sprouting” or “budding.” The name Nisan was adopted following the Babylonian captivity. The first month is comparable to the Roman calendar period of March-April, and begins, in Biblical terms, with a new moon.] Exodus 12:14 refers to the first day of Unleavened Bread (compare Leviticus 23:4, 6), NOT the Passover.

We find that Christ and His disciples kept the Passover on Nisan or Abib 14. At that time, the Passover was sometimes included in the Feast of Unleavened Bread, but then the entire time was counted as lasting eight days, not only seven (compare Matthew 26:17-20; Mark 14:12-18; Luke 22:1, 7-16). However, the distinction between the Passover evening and the seven Days of Unleavened Bread was still clearly understood (compare Mark 14:1). One of the reasons why the Passover was included as an “unleavened” day was that the Jews, when leaving their homes to go to Jerusalem, had to remove all leaven from their homes, before they left (compare Exodus 12:19). Still, when the New Testament speaks of the FEAST during the spring season, it refers to the first day of Unleavened Bread, not the Passover evening (compare John 13:1). During the Passover evening, Christ told His betrayer, Judas, to “do quickly” what he had planned to do (John 13:27). Judas left the house, and the disciples thought that Jesus had asked him to buy those things they needed for the FEAST (compare John 13:29) — that is, the first day of Unleavened Bread, which would start at sunset on Nisan 15 — more than 20 hours later.

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Numbers 12:1 reports about Miriam's and Aaron's rebellion against Moses "because of the Cushite woman whom he had married." Is it known who this Cushite woman was, and when Moses married her?

The Biblical text does not indicate here whether this was a marriage which had taken place some time previously or whether this was a recent event. The Hebrew commentary, Soncino, offers one possible explanation that the Cushite woman was “a woman of Ethiopian origin.” It continues:”Legend tells that Moses married the queen of Ethiopia…”

The Hebrew writer Josephus gives the following narrative in his work, “Antiquities of the Jews”, p. 58, addressing one of Moses’ campaigns as an officer in Pharaoh’s army, prior to his flight from Egypt (compare Acts 7:22-29; Hebrews 11:24-27):

“Tharbis was the daughter of the king of the Ethiopians: she happened to see Moses as he led the army near the walls, and fought with great courage; and admiring the subtlety of his undertakings, and believing him to be the author of the Egyptians’ success, when they had before despaired of recovering their liberty, and to be the occasion of the great danger of the Ethiopians were in, whence they had before boasted of their great achievements, she fell deeply in love with him; and upon the prevalency of that passion, sent to him the most beautiful of all her servants to discourse with him about their marriage. He thereupon accepted the offer, on condition she would produce the delivering up of the city; and gave her the assurance of an oath to take her to his wife; and that when he had once taken possession of the city, he would not break his oath to her. No sooner was the agreement made, but it took effect immediately; and when Moses had cut off the Ethiopians, he gave thanks to God, and consummated his marriage, and led the Egyptians back to their own land.”

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We are commanded in the Bible to remove all leaven from our houses during the Days of Unleavened Bread. Is it true that your understanding and the understanding of the Jews are different, as to what constitutes leaven that needs to be removed? If so, could you explain your position and the reasons for it?

We are glad to.

First of all, we need to understand that the Jews were recipients of the “law” (Romans 9:4) and the “oracles” (Romans 3:2). They were entrusted by God to preserve the written Old Testament Scriptures as well as, for example, the knowledge of the week and the Hebrew Calendar (compare our free booklet, “God’s Commanded Holy Days,” pp. 2-3). Christ also told the Jews of His time to do what the scribes and the Pharisees told them to do, as they were sitting “in Moses’ seat,” warning them at the same time not to “do according to their works” (Matthew 23:1-3). In other words, the people were not to follow the leadership if they were to teach and act contrary to God’s law, either by adding or by deleting something (compare Deuteronomy 4:2). Christ chided the Pharisees and the scribes repeatedly for “laying aside the commandment of God,” while holding “the tradition of men” (Mark 7:1, 8-13). He made clear that His disciples were not obligated to follow those human traditions. Later, the apostles refused to obey the high priest and the Sadducees, when their command was contrary to God’s will (Acts 5:17, 27-29, 40-42).

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What are the origins of April Fool's Day? Should this day be observed by true Christians?

The origin and history of April Fool’s Day [also spelled as “April Fools’ Day”], also called “All Fools’ Day,” are not entirely clear. Many explanations have been advanced to explain its origin.
Most commentaries and researchers maintain that the modern celebrations of the day developed in 1582, in France. As the story goes, prior to that year, the New Year was celebrated for eight days, beginning on March 25. The celebration culminated on April 1. With the reform of the calendar under Charles IX, the Gregorian Calendar was introduced, and New Year’s Day was moved to January 1. In France, however, many people either refused to accept the new date, or did not learn about it, and continued to celebrate New Year’s Day on April 1. Other people began to make fun of these traditionalists, sending them on “fools’ errands” or trying to trick them into believing something false.

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Why should we anxiously wait for the arrival of the Kingdom, if all it offers us is the opportunity to rule over others? I never wanted to rule over others, so this does not really appeal to me. Satan was given rule over this earth, but it was not appealing to him, either. Also, why should we anxiously wait for Christ?

In a recent sermon, titled “How it Will Be As God?”, we attempted to show, from the Biblical revelation, the extent of man’s future. The sermon is posted on our Webpage.

Our hope for the future is not so much summarized with the concept of “ruling,” than it is with beautifying life and with guiding and helping others to live a peaceful life, in accordance with God’s Way (compare Isaiah 2:1-5).

We are looking forward to the end of this physical life and Christ’s return, because of the great hope of salvation and glory set before us (that we actually will be God — a literal member of the very God Family). We do so in spite of the present trials and the temporary Great Tribulation yet ahead for this world. We know that God’s love will never allow us to go through something that is too difficult for us to handle (1 Corinthians 10:13). Christ promised us: “Now when these things begin to happen, look up and lift up your heads, because your redemption [including freedom from pain and suffering] draws near” (Luke 21:28).

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Will there still be physical people after the Great White Throne Judgment?

The short answer is that there will not be any physical people after the time period called “the Great White Throne Judgment,” which is described in Revelation 20:11-15.

We read in Revelation 21:4 that after that time, there will be no more death. We also read in Revelation 20:14 that “Death” was cast into the lake of fire. This means, that whatever physical human being existed, they will, by that time, either have been burned up and destroyed in the lake of fire (thereby ceasing to exist forever), or they will have been changed into immortal spirit beings, unable to die. Physical people die. One cannot keep a physical human being alive forever. Therefore, since there will be no more death, there cannot exist physical people for all eternity at that future time.

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Does the Bible prohibit eating a mixture of milk and meat?

It does not. However, there are some who believe and teach that certain Scriptures prohibit such a practice. They mainly turn to Exodus 23:19, which states: “The first of the firstfruits of your land you shall bring into the house of the LORD your God. You shall not boil a young goat in its mother’s milk.”

The identical prohibition is repeated in Exodus 34:26. We also find the following prohibition in Deuteronomy 14:21:

“You shall not eat anything that dies of itself; you may give it to the alien who is within your gates, that he may eat it, or you may sell it to a foreigner; for you are a holy people to the LORD your God. You shall not boil a young goat in its mother’s milk.”

In commenting on Exodus 23:19, the Hebrew Soncino Commentary points out:

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