Can you prove from Scripture that the Sabbath is still in effect and is to be kept, today?

Listed below are seven proofs, when taken together, show that the Sabbath is still in effect and to be observed by Christians today.

1) Mark 2:27-28 — The Sabbath was made specifically for man, and Christ is the Lord of the Sabbath, not some other day.

2) Genesis 2:2-3 — The Sabbath was made by God through Christ at the same time that man was made, and was set apart as holy time for all mankind forever.

3) Exodus 16 — Israel had lost the knowledge of the Sabbath in the Egyptian slavery and God showed them which day it was by means of special miracles – and thereby, re-emphasized the importance of keeping the Sabbath holy.

4) Exodus 20: 8-11) — The Sabbath was one of the Ten Commandments.

5) Luke 4:16 — Jesus kept the Sabbath.

6) Acts 17:2 — Paul, the apostle to the Gentiles, also kept the Sabbath.

7) Isaiah 66:23 — The Sabbath will be kept in the future when God’s Kingdom will be ruling on the earth.

From this we see 1) that the Sabbath was made for man, 2) that It was established as holy time, set aside for man forever, 3) that it was given before Israel was given the Ten Commandments, 4) that it is one of the Ten Commandments, 5 that Jesus kept it, 6) that Paul kept it, and 7) that it will be kept in the Millennium when God’s Kingdom will rule.

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Does the Scripture in Acts 20:7 reveal that Paul's custom was to observe Sunday as the day he worshipped God each week, rather than the seventh day Sabbath.

Acts 20:7 reads: “Now on the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul, ready to depart the next day, spoke to them and continued his message until midnight.” This Scripture does not say Paul observed Sunday, the first day of the week, as a day of worship. If this were an example for us today, we would be starting the service on Saturday night – not on Sunday morning. Verse 7 shows Paul preached to them until midnight. Also services would have to continue till dawn (verse 11).

Next, we realize that the breaking of bread was not a religious service, but merely the eating of a meal. Acts 27:33-38 proves this. Notice Paul’s situation. He was a Roman prisoner in the midst of many Gentiles on board a ship (Acts 27:1-2). Obviously Paul was not holding a religious service. The men ate for their health (verses 33-34).

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From the wording of Matthew 5:19, it appears that even those who both break the commandments of God and then teach disobedience will actually be part of the Kingdom of God. Can you explain what this verse means?

This verse must be considered in light of other Scriptures in the Bible. Knowing that it is impossible for God to lie (Compare Titus 1:2), we know that the Bible does not contradict itself–that is, God hasn’t inspired teachings that differ. With that view in mind, let’s consider the verse in the context of Matthew 5 along with applicable principles in God’s Word.

Matthew 5:19 states, ” ‘Whoever therefore breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.’ ” It is vital to read the continuation of this statement from Jesus in verse 20: ” ‘For I say to you, that unless your righteousness exceeds the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, YOU WILL BY NO MEANS ENTER THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN.’ “

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You teach that the ministry of the Church has received authority from God to excommunicate or disfellowship Church members for their unrepentant public sinful conduct. Doesn't Matthew 18:17 give this authority to the entire Church membership, and not to the ministry?

In order to properly understand the passage in Matthew 18:17, we need to review all the Scriptures to see whom God has entrusted with the administration of the Church of God.

The Bible tells us that Jesus Christ is the Head of the Church (Ephesians 5:23; Colossians 1:18; 2:18-19). It is He who leads and directs the Church, the building of God the Father (1 Corinthians 3:9). He adds those to the Church whom He wants (Acts 2:47). He is composing the body — the Church (1 Corinthians 12:18, 24). He is the One who places members in certain positions and appoints the ministry (1 Corinthians 12:28). He uses appointed ministers to appoint others to the ministry (Titus 1:5; compare Acts 14:23) by, among other things, the laying on of hands (1 Timothy 5:22).

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Can you explain the Scripture in 2 John 1:10-11 and similar comments in the Bible which speak of people who hold to false teachings? How should we act when we meet someone who has left the Church of God or who is not in our fellowship?

Some have stumbled over this issue, and it does require a balanced understanding to properly apply ALL the Scriptures on this topic. Let’s begin with 2 John: “If anyone comes to you and does not bring this doctrine, do not receive him into your house nor greet him; for he who greets him shares in his evil deeds” (verses 10 and 11).

In the previous verses John speaks of “deceivers” and of “whoever transgresses and does not abide in the doctrine of Christ” (verses 7 and 9). It is evident that the subject being dealt with in this letter is that some no longer walked in the truth. Some had embraced a false doctrine and were actually preaching that Christ was not coming in the flesh; that is, that Christ was not living in the lives of His disciples (verse 7). After several decades in the first generation of the Church of God, false teachers and false teachings were spreading and threatening to deceive some. John also stated in 1 John 4:1-6, that some taught that Christ never came in the flesh.

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Is the Old Covenant still in force and effect today?

There were, in fact, numerous “Old Testament” covenants. Our free booklet, “And Lawlessness Will Abound…“, explains the different Old Testament covenants in detail. Bible scholars sometimes refer to “the Old Covenant,” but when they do, they basically talk about the covenant that God made with Israel at Mount Sinai, as described in Exodus 19. When Israel broke that first “old” covenant, by worshipping a golden calf, God made a new “old” covenant with Israel (Exodus 34:10, NIV). Later, God made a third “old” covenant with the younger generation of Israel, in Moab, just prior to their entering the Promised Land (Deuteronomy 29). By that time, the sacrificial system, which was added due to Israel’s sins, had become part of that covenant made at Moab. When scholars use the term, “the Old Covenant,” they include the sacrificial system that was added and became part of the package, as Israel broke the laws on which the original first “old” covenant (in Exodus 19) was based. A covenant is an agreement between parties based on law. When one party breaks the agreement, the other party is no longer bound by that agreement, either. God says that because they did not keep the Old Covenants (mainly the ones described in Exodus 19, Exodus 34, and Deuteronomy 29), He “disregarded ” them (Hebrews 8:9). He did, in fact, divorce them and sent them away (Jeremiah 3:8).

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Did the Pharaoh of the time of the Exodus drown in the Red Sea?

Several have asked this question, especially in light of inconsistent teachings of the Church of God in the past on this matter. First of all, let us try to determine who the Pharaoh of the Exodus was. Some believe that the Exodus took place around 1290 B.C. and have concluded that Ramses the Great was the Pharaoh who resisted Moses. However, Ramses ruled a full century and a half later than the Exodus occurred.

Quoting from a Good News article of the March-April 1988 edition:

“A careful consideration of all biblical and extra-biblical evidence reveals that the Exodus occurred in the middle of the 15th century B.C. — specifically, in the year 1443, during the reign of Amenhotep II, whose tomb Loret excavated. He was the pharaoh who ruled… when the Egyptians would not let Israel go. This year — 1443 — was 430 years after the covenant with Abraham, made in the spring of 1873 B.C. (Genesis 17:1, Exodus 12:40-41, Galatians 3:17). And it was in the 480th year before the laying of the foundation of the Temple in Solomon’s fourth year (964 B.C.), as required by I Kings 6:1… Moses (born in 1523) was brought up as a prince of this ruling family [of Dynasty XVIII, inaugurated by Pharaoh Ahmose about 1570 B.C. Amenhotep II — a descendant of Ahmose — was the sixth pharaoh of this dynasty.] The ‘daughter of Pharaoh’ (Exodus 2:5) [was] Hatshepsut. She was the daughter of Pharaoh Thutmose I, a son-in-law of Ahmose… Thutmose — perhaps the greatest of the pharaohs of ancient Egypt — would therefore be the biblical ‘pharaoh of the oppression.’ In 1483 B.C., Moses was exiled from Egypt by this Thutmose upon the death of Hatshepsut, Moses’ foster mother and protector… Upon the death of Thutmose in 1450, Amenhotep II assumed the sole leadership of the country.”

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Some claim that Elijah will appear before the return of Jesus Christ and that he may even still be alive. How do you explain the passage in Matthew 17:11 in which Jesus is quoted as saying that Elijah will come and restore all things?

In the context of Matthew 17, Peter, James and John accompany Jesus to a high mountain, and then, in verse 9, Jesus says, “‘Tell the vision to no one until the Son of Man is risen from the dead.'” In this vision they witness Jesus being transfigured and appearing in His glorified state. Along with Jesus, Moses and Elijah also appear. In the parallel account of Mark 9, these disciples wonder at the instruction from Jesus when He spoke of His resurrection: “So they kept this word to themselves, questioning what the rising from the dead meant” (verse 10).

Their curiosity led to the question we find recorded in Matthew 17:10: “And His disciples asked Him, saying, ‘Why then do the scribes say that Elijah must come first?'” The scribes, along with the rest of the religious leadership of that time, did not understand how the Messiah would first appear. Not understanding the scriptures, they were only looking for the establishment of Israel’s kingdom and the destruction of their enemies. Following the resurrection of Jesus, even His disciples asked: “‘Lord, will You at this time restore the kingdom to Israel'” (Acts 1:6)?

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You teach that God does not forgive us our sins if we refuse to repent. Does this mean that God does not require us to forgive those that sin against us if they refuse to repent?

A careful review of the Scriptures reveals that God forgives us our sins, when we repent. In the same way, God requires of us to forgive a sinner his or her sins or trespasses AGAINST US, when he or she repents. Many times, however, we may not know whether or not a person has repented of his or her sins against us. The Bible instructs us as how to deal with such a situation:

We should always have a forgiving attitude and a willingness to immediately forgive upon repentance, as this can be the start of any reconciliation process. We must never develop and harbor grudges against another person (Leviticus 19:18). We must hate the sin, but we must never hate the sinner. If we begin to hate the sinner, and develop resentment against the sinner, then we may find ourselves in a position where we might not be able to forgive the sinner, when he or she does repent and/or when his or her repentance comes to our attention. Further, harboring grudges against someone is not spiritually or physically healthy for ourselves. It can deprive us of the inner peace and joy of God which we are supposed to have (compare John 14:27; 15:11; 16:24; Colossians 3:15). God is always willing and ready to forgive, and so must we. It has been correctly said that we must do everything we can to establish peace (Matthew 5:9; Romans 12:18; 14:19; Hebrews 12:14; 1 Peter 3:11); and to help a person to repent, realizing at the same time that repentance is a gift from God (Romans 2:4). When we forgive, we must also forget, as God does (Jeremiah 31:34). Many may have a problem with eradicating from their memories the bad things, which somebody might have done to them. Without God’s help, it is clearly impossible to totally forget. However, with God’s help, all things are possible; and when we truly forgive someone his or her sins against us, we must make every effort to totally forget, and we must pray to God that He gives us that ability.

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As the oracles are given to the Jews, why don't we follow their example of keeping Passover on the same day that they do, rather than keeping it one day earlier?

We need to properly understand what exactly was given to the Jews — what is meant with the word “oracles.” In Romans 3:2, we are told that the “oracles of God” were committed to the “circumcision.” At the same time, we are told that “their unbelief” did not make “the faithfulness of God” without effect (verse 3). The Greek word for “oracles” is “logion.” It is also used in Acts 7:38; Hebrews 5:12; and 1 Peter 4:11. In all these passages, the oracles or “sayings” must originate from God. If something is being said or written which is contrary to God’s Word, it does not constitute any longer the “oracles of God.”

The “Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words,” by W. E. Vine, points out: “”Logion, a diminutive of logos, a word, narrative, statement, denotes a Divine response or utterance, an oracle; it is used of (a) the contents of the Mosaic Law, Acts 7:38; (b) all the written utterances of God through the O.T. writers, Rom. 3:2; (c) the substance of Christian doctrine, Heb. 5:12; (d) the utterance of God through Christian teachers, 1 Pet. 4:11.”

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